•    Question 1


Which one of the following is considered to be a nonmarket stakeholder of business?
Answer           

•    Question 2


Which of the following is not an example of stakeholders' economic power?
Answer           

•    Question 3


Which argument says that stakeholder management realistically depicts how companies really work?
Answer           

•    Question 4


Which of the following is not considered to be a nonmarket stakeholder?
Answer           

•    Question 5


Interactions between business and society occur:
Answer           

•    Question 6


Customers can exercise economic stakeholder power by:
Answer           

•    Question 7


A number of European countries require public companies to include employee members on their boards of directors, so:
Answer           

•    Question 8


Departments, or offices, within an organization that reach across the dividing line that separated the company from groups and people in society are:
Answer           

•    Question 9


The four types of stakeholders' power recognized by most experts are:
Answer           

•    Question 10


When something stands out from a background, is seen as important, or draws attention it is:
Answer           

•    Question 11


A successful business must meet its:
Answer           

•    Question 12


A firm subscribing to the ownership theory of the firm would mainly be concerned with providing value for its:
Answer           

•    Question 13


Harnessing human imagination to create new approaches to the concerns of modern society is an example of:
Answer           

•    Question 14


The instrumental argument says stakeholder management is:
Answer           

•    Question 15


The phenomenon of a person or group holding multiple stakeholder duties is referred to as:
Answer           

•    Question 1


Failure to understand the beliefs and expectations of stakeholders:

•    Question 2


Customer environmental intelligence includes:

•    Question 3


Stakeholder engagement is:

•    Question 4


The role of special interest groups is an important element in acquiring intelligence from the:

•    Question 5


Once an issue has been identified, its implications must be:

•    Question 6


The drivers of stakeholders of engagement are:

•    Question 7


Firms that generally act only when forced to do so, and then in a defensive manner are

•    Question 8


Proactive companies are:

•    Question 9


A corporation's issue management activities are usually linked to.

•    Question 10


According to management scholar Karl Albrecht, scanning to acquire environmental intelligence should focus on:

•    Question 11


According to a recent survey of top executives, the issue most likely to gain public and political attention over the next five years is:

•    Question 12


A business and its stakeholders coming together for face-to-face conversations about issues of common concern is:

•    Question 13


Legal environmental intelligence includes:

•    Question 14


An analysis of the stability or instability of a government is an example of scanning the:

•    Question 15


Stakeholder engagement is, at its core, a:

•

•    Question 16


Positive reputation can be valued as an intangible corporate:

•    Question 17


Stakeholder partnerships, high-tech communication networks, and sustainability audits are examples of:

•    Question 18


Which of the following examples does not show a company guided by enlightened self-interest?

•    Question 19


Corporate power refers to:

•    Question 20


The idea that the wealthiest members of society should be charitable toward those less fortunate is the:

•    Question 21


Which of the following is not an example of the charity principle?

•    Question 22


Modern corporations should be socially responsible because they:

•    Question 23


Scholars have found:

•    Question 24


A company who complies with the laws and regulations set by the government is:

•    Question 25


The costs of corporate social responsibility may ultimately be passed on to the:

•    Question 26


Which of the following companies is being the most socially responsible?

•    Question 27


Which of the following is not a driver of the Corporate Social Responsiveness phase of Corporate Social Responsibility?

•    Question 28


When the CEO of General Electric appointed the company's first VP of Corporate Citizenship, he was demonstrating:

•    Question 29


When undertaking social initiatives, a company:

•    Question 30


Which of the following is an argument against corporate social responsibility?

1. Which of the following is evidence supporting the assertion that companies are investing in more training?

A) Higher net sales per employee

B) Higher gross profits per employee

C) Higher ratios of market to book value

D) Both A & B

E) All of the above

 

2. In an open system model which of the following statements is not true?

A) Open systems have a dynamic relationship with their environment.

B) Open systems may exist as part of another open system.

C) The system is open to influences from its environment.

D) Inputs are transformed into outputs through a process.

E) All of the above are true.

 

3. Viewing training as a subsystem of an organizational system, the inputs into the training subsystem include an organization’s

A) Strategies.

B) Mission.

C) Resources.

D) People.

E) All of the above.

 

4. In the training model a triggering event is

A) An organizational performance deficit.

B) A signal that training has been successful.

C) A type of behavioral-based evaluation.

D) Input into the development phase of training.

E) None of the above.

 

5. Input into the developmental phase of the training model comes from

A) Needs analysis.

B) Design.

C) Evaluation.

D) Both B & C.

E) None of the above.

1. In the evaluation of training, a determination of whether the trainer actually covered all aspects of the training as designed is called

A) Outcome evaluation.

B) Outcome.

C) Phase evaluation.

D) Process evaluation.

E) Procedural evaluation.

 

2. In the training process model, evaluation occurs at which point?

A) After the design phase

B) After the implementation phase

C) After the development phase

D) All of the above

 

3. Which of the following sources is an input to the analysis process?

A) The organization structure

B) Problematic operational areas

C) The people within the operational areas

D) Both B & C

E) All of the above

 

4. All aspects of the training program come together in the

A) Design phase.

B) Evaluation phase.

C) Development phase.

D) Analysis phase.

E) None of the above.

 

5. When evaluating training, the major type of evaluation to consider is

A) Process evaluation.

B) Analysis evaluation.

C) Outcome evaluation.

D) Both A & C.

E) Both B & C.

 

1. Which of the following statements is not true? The advancement of technology has allowed for

A) Many employees to be able to work outside company walls.

B) New workflow systems.

C) Less requirement for worker knowledge.

D) Both A & B are not true.

E) All of the above are not true.

 

2. Which of the following are predicted to contribute to a labor shortage in the next 10 years?

A) Baby boomers will retire

B) Changes in technology

C) Need for retraining

D) Both A and B

E) All of the above

 

3. Which of these steps is part of the continuous improvement model?

A) Gap analysis

B) Preaudit

C) Process mapping

D) Higher productivity

E) None of the above

 

 

4. What is ISO 9000?

A) A series of standards to assure consistency in product quality

B) An HR software package

C) A quality standard set by the Japanese

D) A strategic quality forecasting model

E) All of the above

 

5. ISO certified companies

A) Have lower than normal training costs.

B) Are six times less likely to experience bankruptcy.

C) Have 36 percent less bureaucracy within their company structure.

D) Both B & C.

E) All of the above.

1. comparing ISO certified companies with companies that were not certified, the text noted that ISO certified companies

A) Have employees who are more satisfied with their jobs.

B) Have more bureaucracy set up to meet all the ISO standards.

C) Are less likely to file for bankruptcy.

D) When Both B & C.

E) All of the above.

 

2. Which of the following career paths best prepares a trainer for a supervisory or coordinator position?

A) Several years’ experience in a specific function

B) Working in a line position

C) Rotation through various specialist positions

D) None of the above

E) All of the above

3. Learning is defined as

A) A temporary change in cognition that results from experience and may influence behavior.

B) A relatively permanent change in understanding and thinking that results from experience and directly influences behavior.

C) A relatively permanent change in understanding and thinking that models behavior.

D) A temporary change in understanding and thinking.

E) A relatively permanent change in cognition that results from self?efficacy and indirectly influences behavior.

 

4. The authors use the acronym KSA to refer to what?

A) Keep, simple, and attitude

B) Knowledge, skills, and attitudes

C) Knowledge, strategy, and aptitude

D) Know, strategy, always

 

5. Knowledge is composed of which three interrelated types?

A) Declarative, practical, and strategic

B) Declarative, practical, and skill

C) Compilation, automatic, and strategic

D) Declarative, procedural, and strategic

E) None of the above

 

1. A person’s store of factual information about a subject matter is

A) Procedural knowledge.

B) Strategic knowledge.

C) Declarative knowledge.

D) Practical knowledge.

 

2. A person’s understanding about how and when to apply the facts that have been learned is called

A) Process knowledge.

B) Declarative knowledge.

C) Practical knowledge.

D) Perpetual knowledge.

E) Procedural knowledge.

 

3. When a person is able to perform a skill without thinking about what they are doing, they are at which level of skill acquisition?

A) Automaticity

B) Automatic

C) Compilation

D) Autonomic

 

4. A broad grouping of knowledge, skills, and attitudes that enable a person to be successful at a number of similar tasks is known as a

A) Competency.

B) Test.

C) Job analysis.

D) Strategy.

E) Skill set.

 

5. Linking competencies to a set of behaviors that allow you to “know it when you see it” is useful for

A) Hiring.

B) Training.

C) Determining rates of pay.

D) Both A & B.

E) All of the above.

1. _________ is (are) the foundations for competencies.

A) Tests

B) KSAs

C) Strengths

D) Motivation

E) Skill sets

 

2. According to the text, _____ provides the opportunity for learning and _____ is a result of the learning.

A) Education; training

B) Development; training

C) Training; development

D) Education; development

E) None of the above

TRUE/FALSE questions

 

1. ___An open system has three parts input, process, and output.

 

 

2. ___A key part of the Domtar strategy was training.

 

3. ___Higher birth rates are one of the reasons for the changing demographics in North America.

 

 

4. ___In general, the smaller the organization, the fewer responsibilities each HRD employee will have.

 

 

 

5. ___The triggering event signals a need for a TNA.

TRUE/FALSE questions

 

1 ___Compilation is the highest level of skill acquisition.

 

 

2 ___The highest level of knowledge is termed strategic knowledge.

 

SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS

 

1. Define KSAs and explain the different levels of each. Use a diagram if you like.

 

2. Explain, with the use of a diagram, the key concepts of the “open systems model.”

 

ESSAY QUESTION

 

1. Describe how the model of training processes serves as a problem?solving tool. Include a brief explanation of each of the five phases.

 

1. Strategic planning is best defined as

A) The development of a relatively long?term mission.

B) The development of relatively short?term objectives.

C) A process for determining how best to pursue the organization’s mission while meeting the demands of the environment.

D) The development of values and ideals of the organization.

 

2. Strategic planning that focuses on the long term is a

A) Reactive strategy.

B) Proactive strategy.

C) Less formal analysis.

D) None of the above.

 

 

3. HRD should be involved in strategic planning by

A) Helping shape strategy.

B) Influencing the HR strategy.

C) Developing its own strategy in line with the strategic plan.

D) Both B & C.

E) All of the above.

 

4. Which of the following is not a market leader strategy?

A) Find new products

B) Develop new markets

C) Exploit new products

D) None of the above

E) All of the above

5. The defender strategy is also referred to as

A) Differentiator.

B) Innovator.

C) Cost leader.

D) Market leader.

E) Market follower.

 

1. Which of the following statements is true in an uncertain environment?

A) The organization must rigidly define operating methods.

B) A market leader strategy is the best strategy to adopt.

C) There is less complexity in the environment.

D) Cost leader strategy is the best strategy to adopt.

 

2. Low uncertainty in the external environment is created by

A) High complexity and low stability.

B) Low stability and low complexity.

C) High stability and low complexity.

D) Both A & B.

 

3. __________ refers to the number of factors in an organization’s environment and how they are interrelated.

A) Environmental uncertainty

B) Environmental flexibility

C) Environmental complexity

D) Environmental stability

E) None of the above

 

4. The routine technology label is not applied to tasks that have

A) Well structured and defined solutions to occurring problems.

B) Few problems.

C) Problems that occur often and unexpectedly.

D) A high degree of predictability.

E) All of the above.

5. You would typically associate routine technology with which of the following?

A) Those with market leader strategies

B) A low degree of predictability of outcomes or results

C) No defined solutions when problems do occur

D) Highly specialized technologies

E) All of the above are associated with routine technologies

1. Organizational design refers to

A) The type of technology used.

B) The type and style of decision making used.

C) How the division of labor is set up.

D) Both B & C.

E) None of the above.

2. A mechanistic design is best applied in which of the following situations?

A) Non?routine technologies

B) Small businesses

C) High volume assembly lines

D) Where there are not clear answers to many of the problems that arise

 

3. According to the text, the strategic planning process at Hewlett Packard Canada in the late 1980’s resulted in

A) The sales force reorganizing around specific products.

B) A concentration on the laser printer and increasing the profit margin on each unit.

C) Hewlett Packard being one of the toughest competitors in the marketplace.

D) Both A & C.

 

4. What is one reason companies should invest in strategic HR?

A) To be able to grow

B) To increase their market value

C) To centralize their strategies

D) To involve management

 

5. Which of the following is a reason why some small businesses do not engage in strategic planning?

A) Time constraints

B) Unfamiliarity

C) Lack of skills

D) Lack of trust

E) All of the above

1. Cavalier Tool and Manufacturing decided not to pursue ISO certification because

A) They could not afford the cost associated with certification.

B) They had attempted certification a few years earlier and it had been unsuccessful.

C) Sometimes a customer required a “down and dirty” mold which would not be allowed under ISO certification.

D) The owner was not interested in certification.

 

2. A decentralized training department results in

A) Less training costs.

B) More relevant training.

C) More control over training content.

D) Less likelihood of the transfer of training.

 

 

3. Which best explains the strategic training alternative of the internal provider?

A) All or most training developed in house, each phase handled by specialists, and needs developed from a decentralized HRD function

B) All or most training purchased from outside sources, each phase handled by specialists, and needs developed from a centralized HRD function

C) All or most training activities provided by outside trainers and training function’s role is to select and manage training suppliers

D) All or most training developed in house, each phase handled by specialists, and needs developed from a centralized HRD function

 

4. How can HRD align itself with the organization’s strategies?

A) By developing training that focuses on the market

B) By developing training to meet strategic performance objectives

C) By delivering training to the right people

D) Both B and C are correct

E) None of the above

 

5. Most companies use the _____ strategy when addressing their training and development needs.

A) Primary provider

B) Mixed

C) Manager intermediary

D) Both A & C

1. Organizational development is best defined as

A) A profession that deals with reacting to changes in external environment.

B) A profession and field of study that creates and implements planned change in organizations.

C) A profession and field of study that deals with creating and implementing new ideas in the organization.

D) A field of study and profession that deals with explaining serendipitous events.

2. Which of the following statements is not true?

A) Resistance to change is natural.

B) Change requires effort and new learning.

C) Resistance can derail the change process.

D) The change process should not involve the individual, group, and organizational level.

E) For the desired performance to occur, changes required of the employees must be identified.

 

3. Which of the following is not a step in the generic planned change model?

A) Goals are developed and handed down by a centralized top management team.

B) A compelling need for change is established.

C) The results of the approach are evaluated.

D) An approach to addressing the cause is selected.

E) All of the above are steps in a general planned change model.

 

4. What can be done to reduce resistance to change?

A) Focus on changing one level (organizational, group, and individual) at a time.

B) Involve employees.

C) Let those who are satisfied with the status quo lead the way.

D) Both A & B.

E) All of the above.

 

5. Which of the following is not a source of conflict and disagreement between OD and training professionals?

A) The difference between their perceived role and power base.

B) The nature of OD practices challenge assumptions underlying organizational practices.

C) OD principles interfere with the implementation of effective training programs.

D) OD professionals are more likely to be guided by data than training professionals.

E) Companies typically organize around their functional areas.

 

1. OD interventions could be implemented more successfully if they included training where employees

A) Developed a common knowledge and skill base in the area of the intervention.

B) Understood group dynamics and became skilled at working within groups.

C) Understood and became skilled at using a common problem?solving model.

D) Both A & C.

E) All of the above.

 

2. A reason there might be conflict among HRD and OD professionals is that the OD practitioner

A) Has a more tactical approach.

B) Tends to be seen as overly analytical.

C) Deals with mostly middle management.

D) Both A & B.

E) Both A & C.

 

TRUE/FALSE questions

 

1. ___HRD contributes to the development of new strategies.

2. ___If the external environment is highly complex and highly stable, there is lowuncertainty.

3. ___Competitive strategy focuses on positioning products and services in the marketplace

4. ___The main activity associated with producing an organization’s principle products and services is often called the core technology.

5. ___Organizational design refers to the way the work is divided and organized.