Information System

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Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 72 Kilobytes

Information_system_1

TRUE/FALSE

1. The most common PDA is a smartphone.

2. Twitter is an example of a management information system (MIS).

3. The terms “information systems” and “information technologies” are used interchangeably.

4. Skills in using word processing software are an example of information literacy.

5. Business Intelligence (BI) includes historical views of business operations.

6. Computers are most beneficial in transaction processing operations.

7. Many MIS applications are used in both the private and public sectors.

8. An information system typically provides three major components: data, intelligence, and information.

9. Generally, there are three sources of data: internal, external and generated.

10. Customers, competitors, and suppliers are examples of internal data sources.

11. A database management system (DBMS) is used to create, organize, and manage databases.

12. The quality of information is determined by its usefulness to users.

13. Most information systems do not make use of graphical user interfaces.

14. To achieve its goals, an information system might use many different information technologies.

15. Information is the most important resource in any organization.

16. Intranets are often used to provide basic HR functions, such as employees checking how much vacation time they have left or looking up how much they have in their 401(k) plans.

17. Buyer power is high when customers have few choices and low when they have many choices.

18. An effective financial information system (FIS) should provide timely, accurate, and integrated information about the marketing mix.

19. Rivalry among existing competitors is high when many competitors occupy the same marketplace position.

20. In the future, most information system software will be able to run on personal computers without problems.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A typical PDA includes a(n) ____.

a.

external monitor

c.

mouse

b.

calendar

d.

external keyboard

2. ____ is a social networking Web site.

a.

Facebook

c.

XML

b.

Sony Music Group

d.

Droid

3. ____ is understanding the role of information in generating and using business intelligence.

a.

Computer literacy

c.

Management information systems

b.

Information literacy

d.

Transaction processing

4. A ____ system is a type of transaction processing system (TPS).

a.

social networking

c.

payroll

b.

business intelligence

d.

database

5. Management information system (MIS) ____ include programs developed in-house.

a.

human elements

c.

hardware components

b.

data processes

d.

software components

6. In designing an MIS, the first task is to define the system’s ____ clearly.

a.

objectives

c.

hardware components

b.

database

d.

users

7. Sales records are an example of the ____ component of an information system.

a.

internal data

c.

database

b.

external data

d.

process

8. Typically, data has a(n) ____ orientation.

a.

elongated

c.

time

b.

amplified

d.

short

9. Microsoft Access is an example of the ____ component of an information system.

a.

internal data

c.

database

b.

external data

d.

process

10. The output of an information system is ____.

a.

data

c.

a process

b.

a database

d.

information

11. Information technologies include ____.

a.

RFID tags

c.

the four Ms

b.

internal data

d.

Twitter

12. Scheduling and assigning employees might be handled by a(n) ____.

a.

PIS

c.

FIS

b.

MFIS

d.

LIS

13. The four Ms of resources are: ____.

a.

management, motivation, manpower, and monitoring

b.

materials, money, modeling, and monitoring

c.

manpower, machinery, materials, and money

d.

manpower, monitoring, movement, and modeling

14. Managers could use a(n) ____ to assess the effect on final product costs of a seven percent increase in raw materials.

a.

HRIS

c.

PIS

b.

MFIS

d.

MKIS

15. Focus is one of ____.

a.

the goals of a FIS

c.

the Five Forces

b.

the benefits of a DBMS

d.

Michael Porter’s three strategies

16. A successful ____ program helps improve customer service and create a long term relationship between an organization and its customers.

a.

CRM

c.

ERP

b.

DMBS

d.

SCM

17. ____ is the opposite of buyer power.

a.

The threat of new entrants

c.

The thread of substitute products

b.

Rivalry among existing competitors

d.

Supplier power

18. Online brokerage firms operate in a highly competitive environment, so they use information technologies to make their services more unique in order to combat ____.

a.

supplier power

c.

rivalry among existing competitors

b.

buyer power

d.

the threat of new entrants

19. A ____ should have knowledge and understanding of data warehouse and data mining tools.

a.

systems analyst

c.

webmaster

b.

computer programmer

d.

database administrator

20. Future progress in ____ includes further development in natural language processing that should make information systems easier to use.

a.

artificial intelligence

c.

personal computing power

b.

computer literacy

d.

computer criminals

1. In grocery and retail stores, a(n) ____________________ system speeds up service by reading the universal product codes (UPCs) on items in a shopping cart.

2. Computer ____________________ means having a basic knowledge of hardware and software, the Internet, and collaboration tools and technologies.

3. A(n) ____________________ is an organized integration of hardware and software technologies, data processes, and human elements designed to produce timely, integrated, relevant, accurate, and useful information for decision making purposes.

4. In a management information system, the application or organization determines the type of ____________________ used.

5. The ____________________ component of an information system is considered the input to the system.

6. A(n) ____________________ is the heart of an information system.

7. The purpose of an information system’s ____________________ component is generating the most useful type of information for making decisions.

8. The ultimate goal of a(n) ____________________ is to generate business intelligence (BI).

9. The Internet is an example of an information ____________________.

10. A(n) ____________________ is designed to reduce the cost of transportation materials while maintaining safe and reliable delivery.

11. The goal of a financial information system (FIS) is to provide information to financial executives in a(n) ____________________ manner.

12. The Five Forces Model was created by ____________________.

13. The top information systems job belongs to either the chief technology officer (CTO) or the ____________________.

14. Part of the ____________________’s job is to provide network and cybersecurity.

15. In the future, the development in ____________________ language processing should make information systems easier to use.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What are some ways in which students come into contact with information systems?

2. How can banks use computers and information systems?

3. How do organizations use social networking sites?

4. Compare information systems and information technologies.

5. Give an example of how an MIS might be used in the public sector.

6. List four qualities information must have to make it useful.

7. Describe how a personal information system (PIS) helps decision makers.

8. Explain the main difference between an Intranet and the Internet.

9. Define and describe a manufacturing information system (MFIS).

10. Explain the difference in focus for a bottom-line strategy and a top-line strategy.

11. How might an organization combat the threat of new entrants?

12. Describe the role of the chief privacy officer.

13. Describe the role of the systems analyst and the knowledge required for the position.

14. Describe how networking technologies will improve in the future.

15. Describe the impact of the growth of the Internet in the future.

ESSAY

1. What are PDAs and smartphones?

2. What should a knowledge worker know about Business Intelligence?

3. What is a database? What role does a database play in an information system?

4. What type of decisions are supported by a LIS?

5. Describe the threat of substitute products or services and how organizations fight this threat.

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 99 Kilobytes

Information_system_10

TRUE/FALSE
1.    Systems planning today is about evaluating all potential systems that need to be implemented.
2.    Information systems should always be designed from scratch.
3.    When designing information systems, projecting the organization’s growth rate is important; otherwise, the system could become inefficient shortly after it’s designed.
4.    The planning phase is one of the most critical phases of the SDLC model.
5.    The answer to the question “why is this information system being developed?” is most often obvious; it need not be explored before beginning a project.
6.    A key consideration for the analyst is determining who will be using a system.
7.    Establishing evaluation criteria ensures objectivity throughout the SDLC process.
8.    Normally a task force for the planning phase of the SDLC only includes representatives from the IT department and top management.
9.    The input of external users is optional when planning a system.
10.    Using a task force for designing an information system is similar to using the extreme programming approach.
11.    Once a project has been deemed feasible there is no reason to continue to assess feasibility since it will not change.
12.    To conduct an economic feasibility study, the systems analyst team must identify all user requirements and managerial questions.
13.    There are two types of costs that should be considered when assessing economic feasibility - tangible development and operating costs.
14.    Only tangible benefits should be included in an economic feasibility study since intangible benefits cannot be quantified.
15.    Workflow plans, floor plans, statistical information, project sequence diagrams, and timelines or milestone charts are all useful supporting documents for an operational feasibility study.
16.    Whether the new system can be completed on time is the subject of schedule feasibility.
17.    There are four major approaches for analysis and design of information systems.
18.    Data is analyzed using a flowchart.
19.    In a data flow diagram, data stores (databases, file systems, even file cabinets) are shown as a grey rectangle.
20.    The conceptual design is an overview of the system and doesn’t include hardware or software choices.
21.    Including users and top management in the construction phase is not important because construction is a purely technical matter.
22.    Developing prototypes might lead analysts and designers to forego comprehensive testing and documentation.
23.    In phased-in-phased-out conversion, the analyst introduces the system in only a limited area.
24.    Drafting an RFP can take 6 to 12 months.
25.    A major advantage of an RFP is the time involved in writing and evaluating the proposal.
26.    An RFI is not suitable for complex projects.
27.    Managers are happy when end-users pursue a self-sourcing solution because end-users have easy access to crucial data.
28.    With nearshore outsourcing, the organization chooses an outsourcing company in any part of the world, as long as it can provide the needed services.
29.    The extreme programming approach is a major departure from traditional software development, such as the SDLC.
30.    Agile methodology is similar to SDLC.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.    The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is also known as the ____ model.
a.    adhoc    c.    agile
b.    asynchronous    d.    waterfall
2.    During systems ____, a preliminary analysis of requirements is done first.
a.    planning    c.    design
b.    requirements gathering and analysis    d.    implementation
3.    Sometimes an information system needs to be designed from scratch, and the ____ model is particularly suitable in these situations.
a.    self-sourcing    c.    SDLC
b.    dataflow    d.    RAD
4.    The end result of the ____ phase should give users and top management a clear view of what the problem is and how the information system will solve the problem.
a.    prototyping    c.    requirements
b.    design    d.    planning
5.    ____ users include customers, contractors, suppliers, and other business partners.
a.    Internal    c.    Task force
b.    External    d.    Joint
6.    The ____ approach incorporates varying viewpoints from different functional areas of an organization to help ensure that collected requirements for the application aren’t too narrow and one-dimensional in focus
a.    XP    c.    External
b.    JAD    d.    Four Ws
7.    Development costs for a system include ____.
a.    intangible costs    c.    Web hosting fees
b.    operating costs    d.    personnel costs
8.    Integrating ____ into the SDLC process is a good idea to ensure the system’s success.
a.    RAD    c.    operating costs
b.    intangible benefits    d.    feasibility checkpoints
9.    The final result of the economic feasibility study is the ____ report.
a.    internal rate of return    c.    cost-benefit analysis
b.    net present value    d.    payback
10.    ____ costs measure what you would miss by not having a system or feature.
a.    Opportunity    c.    Economic
b.    Operational    d.    Investment
11.    Extensive training is one solution to the problem of ____ feasibility.
a.    economic    c.    operational
b.    technical    d.    schedule
12.    “Will there be resistance from users?” is a question that should be considered when assessing ____ feasibility.
a.    economic    c.    operational
b.    technical    d.    legal
13.    Are there any political repercussions of using the system? is a question that should be considered when assessing ____ feasibility.
a.    economic    c.    operational
b.    technical    d.    legal
14.    The problem of missing deadlines is common in the information systems field, but designers can often minimize this problem by using ____ tools.
a.    flowchart    c.    CASE
b.    dataflow    d.    project management
15.    In the ____ phase, analysts define the problem and generate alternates for solving it.
a.    design    c.    requirements gathering and analysis
b.    planning    d.    implementation
16.    The ____ document is created during the requirements-gathering and analysis phase.
a.    maintenance plan    c.    JAD
b.    system specifications    d.    CBA
17.    A ____ helps break down a complex process into simpler, more manageable, and more understandable subprocesses.
a.    data flow diagram    c.    context diagram
b.    flowchart    d.    conceptual use model
18.    A ____ shows a process at a more general level and is helpful for showing top management and the task force how a process works.
a.    data flow diagram    c.    context diagram
b.    flowchart    d.    conceptual use model
19.    In a data flow diagram, processes are indicated with a(n) ____.
a.    arrow    c.    rectangle
b.    diamond    d.    circle
20.    During the design phase, the ____ design involves selecting a specific platform such as Dell servers running Ubuntu Linux.
a.    hardware    c.    CASE
b.    physical    d.    logical
21.    CASE tools are most useful during the ____ phase of the SDLC.
a.    planning    c.    implementation
b.    design    d.    maintenance
22.    A ____ prototype is used to determine a system’s technical feasibility.
a.    proof-of-concept    c.    requirements-based
b.    CASE    d.    selling
23.    Prototyping is usually done in four steps, the last of which is ____.
a.    defining the initial requirements    c.    reviewing and evaluating the prototype
b.    developing the prototype    d.    revising the prototype
24.    In ____ conversion, the old and new systems run simultaneously for a short time to ensure that the new system works correctly.
a.    phased-in-phased-out    c.    plunge
b.    parallel    d.    pilot
25.    One alternative to an RFP is a ____.
a.    feasibility study    c.    vision document
b.    cost benefit analysis    d.    request for information (RFI)
26.    ____ is when end users develop their own information systems with little or no formal assistance from the information systems team.
a.    Sourcing    c.    Self-sourcing
b.    Outsourcing    d.    Insourcing
27.    The best approach to control the proliferation of invalid and inconsistent data in corporate databases is controlling the ____ of data.
a.    amount    c.    size
b.    flow    d.    use
28.    The ____ approach to implementation can save the cost of hiring additional staff and meet the demands for more timely development of information systems projects.
a.    self-sourcing    c.    outsourcing
b.    insourcing    d.    tempsourcing
29.    With ____ outsourcing, the organization chooses an outsourcing company in the same country.
a.    onshore    c.    offshore
b.    nearshore    d.    inshore
30.    As part of the ____ phase, the team collects performance data and gathers information on whether the system is meeting its objectives by talking with users, customers, and other people affected by the new system.
a.    planning    c.    requirements gathering and analysis
b.    design    d.    maintenance
31.    The fundamental principle behind ____ is that the “blocks of codes” can be reused in a variety of different applications, allowing new business processes to be created from a point of existing services.
a.    XP    c.    SOA
b.    RAD    d.    agile programming
32.    SOA advocates that core business functions and the dynamic functions that change all the time should be ____.
a.    decoupled    c.    eliminated
b.    combined    d.    magnified
33.    ____ concentrates on user involvement and continuous interaction between users and designers.
a.    XP    c.    JAD
b.    RAD    d.    Agile
34.    ____ divides a project into smaller functions, and developers can’t go on to the next phase until the current phase is finished.
a.    XP    c.    JAD
b.    RAD    d.    Agile
35.    ____ focuses on setting a minimum number of requirements and turning them into a working product.
a.    RAD    c.    Agile methodology
b.    SDLC    d.    XP
COMPLETION
1.    The ____________________ phase is the first phase in the SDLC.
2.    During the planning phase, users must understand the four ____________________s.
3.    ____________________ users are employees who will use the system regularly.
4.    ____________________ application development is a collective activity involving users, top management, and IT professionals.
5.    ____________________ is the measure of how beneficial or practical an information system will be to an organization and should be measured continuously throughout the SDLC process
6.    ____________________ feasibility assesses a system’s costs and benefits.
7.    Lack of ____________________ feasibility can stem from an organization lacking the expertise, time, or personnel to implement the new system.
8.    ____________________ feasibility is concerned with whether the new system can be completed on time.
9.    The first step in phase number ____________________ of the SDLC is gathering requirements.
10.    The ____________________ approach treats process and data independently and is a sequential approach that requires completing the analysis before beginning the design.
11.    The models created during the analysis phase constitute the ____________________ specifications.
12.    ____________________ are particularly helpful for investigation and analysis in large-scale projects because they automate parts of the design phase.
13.    ____________________ prototypes are used to sell a proposed system to users and management by showing some of its features and demonstrating how beneficial it could be to the organization.
14.    Training employees takes place during the ____________________ phase of the SDLC.
15.    ____________________ is when an organization’s team develops the system internally.
SHORT ANSWER
1.    How do the phases of the SDLC relate to each other?
2.    How is a “problem” for which a system is being defined identified? Provide an example.
3.    When analysts get feedback from users, what are the type of questions that should be considered?
4.    Why is the formation of a task force important?
5.    What is feasibility and why is it important when planning a project?
6.    During the planning phase, analysts investigate a proposed solution’s feasibility and determine how best to present the solution to management to get funding. What tool is used to investigate feasibility? What are the outputs?
7.    What are tangible benefits and how are they calculated?
8.    Provide an example of how intangible benefits can be quantified?
9.    What type of questions should be addressed when determining legal feasibility?
10.    What is the function of the models created during the analysis phase?
11.    What are the parts of the design phase?
12.    What steps are involved in prototyping?
13.    Describe plunge conversion.
14.    What are the advantages of doing a RFP?
15.    What are some of the shortcomings of RAD?
ESSAY
1.    What type of questions should be asked to determine operational feasibility?
2.    What are some of the capabilities of most CASE tools?
3.    What are the advantages of prototypes?
4.    What is a RFP?
5.    Under what circumstances is the SDLC not appropriate?

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 172 Kilobytes

Information_system_11

TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS
1. A current liability must be paid out of current earnings.
2. Current liabilities are expected to be paid within one year or the operating cycle,
whichever is longer.
3. The relationship between current liabilities and current assets is important in evaluating a
company's ability to pay off its long-term debt.
4. A company whose current liabilities exceed its current assets may have a liquidity
problem.
5. Notes payable usually require the borrower to pay interest.
6. Notes payable are often used instead of accounts payable.
7. A note payable must always be paid before an account payable.
8. A $30,000, 8%, 9-month note payable requires an interest payment of $1,800 at maturity.
9. Most notes are not interest bearing.
10. With an interest-bearing note, the amount of cash received upon issuance of the note
generally exceeds the note's face value.
11. Interest expense on a note payable is only recorded at maturity.
12. Interest expense is reported under Other Expenses and Losses in the income statement.
13. Unearned revenues should be classified as Other Revenues and Gains on the Income
Statement.
14. The higher the sales tax rate, the more profit a retailer can earn.
15. Metropolitan Symphony sells 200 season tickets for $60,000 that represents a five concertseason. The amount of Unearned Ticket Revenue after the second concert is $24,000.
16. During the month, a company sells goods for a total of $108,000, which includes sales
taxes of $8,000; therefore, the company should recognize $100,000 in Sales Revenues
and $8,000 in Sales Tax Expense.
17. Current maturities of long-term debt refers to the amount of interest on a note payable thatmust be paid in the current year.
18. The current ratio permits analysts to compare the liquidity of different sized companies.
19. Working capital is current assets divided by current liabilities.
20. Contingent liabilities should be recorded in the accounts if there is a remote possibility thatthe contingency will actually occur.
21. A contingent liability is a liability that may occur if some future event takes place.
22. In concept, the estimating of Warranty Expense when products are sold under warranty issimilar to the estimating of Bad Debts Expense based on credit sales.
23. FICA taxes and federal income taxes are levied on employees' earnings without limit.
24. FICA taxes withheld and federal income taxes withheld are mandatory payroll deductions.
25. The employer incurs a payroll tax expense equal to the amount withheld from the
employees' wages for federal income taxes.
26. Internal control over payroll is not necessary because employees will complain if they do
not receive the correct amount on their payroll checks.
27. The timekeeping function includes supervisors monitoring hours worked through time
cards and time reports.
28. The human resources department documents and authorizes employment of new
employees.
29. Payroll activities involve three functions: hiring employees, preparing the payroll, and
paying the payroll.
a30. Post-retirement benefits consist of payments by employers to retired employees for health
care, life insurance, and pensions.
31. A debt that is expected to be paid within one year through the creation of long-term debt isa current liability.
32. Notes payable usually are issued to meet long-term financing needs.
33. Current maturities of long-term debt are often identified as long-term debt due within one
year on the balance sheet.
34. In a given year, total warranty expense is the sum of actual warranty costs incurred on
units sold plus the estimated cost of servicing those units in the future.
35. FICA taxes are a voluntary deduction from employee earnings.
36. FICA taxes are a deduction from employee earnings and are also imposed upon
employers as an expense.
37. The objectives of internal accounting control for payrolls are (a) to safeguard company
assets from unauthorized payments of payrolls and (b) to assure accuracy and reliability
of the accounting records pertaining to payroll.
a38. When a company gives employees rights to receive compensation for absences and the
payment for such absences is probable and the amount can be reasonably estimated, the
company should accrue a liability.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
39. All of the following are reported as current liabilities except
a. accounts payable.
b. bonds payable.
c. notes payable.
d. unearned revenues.
40. The relationship between current liabilities and current assets is
a. useful in determining income.
b. useful in evaluating a company's liquidity.
c. called the matching principle.
d. useful in determining the amount of a company's long-term debt.
41. Most companies pay current liabilities
a. out of current assets.
b. by issuing interest-bearing notes payable.
c. by issuing stock.
d. by creating long-term liabilities.
42. A current liability is a debt that can reasonably be expected to be paid
a. within one year.
b. between 6 months and 18 months.
c. out of currently recognized revenues.
d. out of cash currently on hand.
.
43. Liabilities are classified on the balance sheet as current or
a. deferred.
b. unearned.
c. long-term.
d. accrued.
44. From a liquidity standpoint, it is more desirable for a company to have current
a. assets equal current liabilities.
b. liabilities exceed current assets.
c. assets exceed current liabilities.
d. liabilities exceed long-term liabilities.
45. The relationship of current assets to current liabilities is used in evaluating a company's
a. operating cycle.
b. revenue-producing ability.
c. short-term debt paying ability.
d. long-range solvency.
46. Which of the following is usually not an accrued liability?
a. Interest payable
b. Wages payable
c. Taxes payable
d. Notes payable
47. In most companies, current liabilities are paid within
a. one year through the creation of other current liabilities.
b. the operating cycle through the creation of other current liabilities.
c. one year out of current assets.
d. the operating cycle out of current assets.
48. The entry to record the issuance of an interest-bearing note credits Notes Payable for the
note's
a. maturity value.
b. market value.
c. face value.
d. cash realizable value.
49. With an interest-bearing note, the amount of assets received upon issuance of the note is
generally
a. equal to the note's face value.
b. greater than the note's face value.
c. less than the note's face value.
d. equal to the note's maturity value.
50. A note payable is in the form of
a. a contingency that is reasonably likely to occur.
b. a written promissory note.
c. an oral agreement.
d. a standing agreement.
51. The entry to record the proceeds upon issuing an interest-bearing note is
a. Interest Expense
Cash
Notes Payable
b. Cash
Notes Payable
c. Notes Payable
Cash
d. Cash
Notes Payable
Interest Payable
52. Admire County Bank agrees to lend Givens Brick Company $200,000 on January 1.
Givens Brick Company signs a $200,000, 8%, 9-month note. The entry made by Givens
Brick Company on January 1 to record the proceeds and issuance of the note is
a. Interest Expense................................................................. 12,000
Cash. .................................................................................. 188,000
Notes Payable............................................................ 200,000
b. Cash ................................................................................... 200,000
Notes Payable............................................................ 200,000
c. Cash ................................................................................... 200,000
Interest Expense................................................................. 12,000
Notes Payable............................................................ 212,000
d. Cash ................................................................................... 200,000
Interest Expense................................................................. 12,000
Notes Payable............................................................ 200,000
Interest Payable ......................................................... 12,000
53. Admire County Bank agrees to lend Givens Brick Company $200,000 on January 1.
Givens Brick Company signs a $200,000, 8%, 9-month note. What is the adjusting entry
required if Givens Brick Company prepares financial statements on June 30?
a. Interest Expense................................................................. 8,000
Interest Payable ......................................................... 8,000
b. Interest Expense................................................................. 8,000
Cash........................................................................... 8,000
c. Interest Payable .................................................................. 8,000
Cash........................................................................... 8,000
d. Interest Payable .................................................................. 8,000
Interest Expense ........................................................ 8,000
54. Admire County Bank agrees to lend Givens Brick Company $200,000 on January 1.
Givens Brick Company signs a $200,000, 8%, 9-month note. What entry will Givens Brick
Company make to pay off the note and interest at maturity assuming that interest has
been accrued to September 30?
a. Notes Payable .................................................................... 212,000
Cash .......................................................................... 212,000
b. Notes Payable .................................................................... 200,000
Interest Payable.................................................................. 12,000
Cash .......................................................................... 212,000
c. Interest Expense................................................................. 12,000
Notes Payable .................................................................... 200,000
Cash .......................................................................... 212,000
d. Interest Payable.................................................................. 8,000
Notes Payable .................................................................... 200,000
Interest Expense................................................................. 4,000
Cash .......................................................................... 212,000
55. As interest is recorded on an interest-bearing note, the Interest Expense account is
a. increased; the Notes Payable account is increased.
b. increased; the Notes Payable account is decreased.
c. increased; the Interest Payable account is increased.
d. decreased; the Interest Payable account is increased.
56. When an interest-bearing note matures, the balance in the Notes Payable account is
a. less than the total amount repaid by the borrower.
b. the difference between the maturity value of the note and the face value of the note.
c. equal to the total amount repaid by the borrower.
d. greater than the total amount repaid by the borrower.
57. On October 1, Steve's Carpet Service borrows $250,000 from First National Bank on a 3-
month, $250,000, 8% note. What entry must Steve's Carpet Service make on December
31 before financial statements are prepared?
a. Interest Payable.................................................................. 5,000
Interest Expense........................................................ 5,000
b. Interest Expense................................................................. 20,000
Interest Payable ......................................................... 20,000
c. Interest Expense................................................................. 5,000
Interest Payable ......................................................... 5,000
d. Interest Expense................................................................. 5,000
Notes Payable............................................................ 5,000
58. On October 1, Steve's Carpet Service borrows $250,000 from First National Bank on a 3-
month, $250,000, 8% note. The entry by Steve's Carpet Service to record payment of the
note and accrued interest on January 1 is
a. Notes Payable..................................................................... 255,000
Cash........................................................................... 255,000
b. Notes Payable..................................................................... 250,000
Interest Payable .................................................................. 5,000
Cash........................................................................... 255,000
c. Notes Payable..................................................................... 250,000
Interest Payable .................................................................. 20,000
Cash........................................................................... 270,000
d. Notes Payable..................................................................... 250,000
Interest Expense................................................................. 5,000
Cash........................................................................... 255,000
59. Interest expense on an interest-bearing note is
a. always equal to zero.
b. accrued over the life of the note.
c. only recorded at the time the note is issued.
d. only recorded at maturity when the note is paid.
60. The entry to record the payment of an interest-bearing note at maturity after all interest
expense has been recognized is
a. Notes Payable
Interest Payable
Cash
b. Notes Payable
Interest Expense
Cash
c. Notes Payable
Cash
d. Notes Payable
Cash
Interest Payable
61. Sales taxes collected by a retailer are recorded by
a. crediting Sales Taxes Revenue.
b. debiting Sales Taxes Expense.
c. crediting Sales Taxes Payable.
d. debiting Sales Taxes Payable.
62. Unearned Rental Revenue is
a. a contra account to Rental Revenue.
b. a revenue account.
c. reported as a current liability.
d. debited when rent is received in advance.
63. Sales taxes collected by the retailer are recorded as a(n)
a. revenue.
b. liability.
c. expense.
d. asset.
64. On September 1, Joe's Painting Service borrows $50,000 from National Bank on a 4-
month, $50,000, 6% note. What entry must Joe's Painting Service make on December 31
before financial statements are prepared?
a. Interest Payable.................................................................. 1,000
Interest Expense........................................................ 1,000
b. Interest Expense................................................................. 3,000
Interest Payable ......................................................... 3,000
c. Interest Expense................................................................. 1,000
Interest Payable ......................................................... 1,000
d. Interest Expense................................................................. 1,000
Notes Payable............................................................ 1,000
65. On September 1, Joe's Painting Service borrows $50,000 from National Bank on a 4-
month, $50,000, 6% note. The entry by Joe's Painting Service to record payment of the
note and accrued interest on January 1 is
a. Notes Payable .................................................................... 51,000
Cash .......................................................................... 51,000
b. Notes Payable .................................................................... 50,000
Interest Payable.................................................................. 1,000
Cash .......................................................................... 51,000
c. Notes Payable .................................................................... 50,000
Interest Payable.................................................................. 3,000
Cash .......................................................................... 53,000
d. Notes Payable .................................................................... 50,000
Interest Expense................................................................. 1,000
Cash .......................................................................... 51,000
66. The interest charged on a $100,000 note payable, at the rate of 8%, on a 90-day note
would be
a. $8,000.
b. $4,444.
c. $2,000.
d. $667.
67. The interest charged on a $100,000 note payable, at the rate of 6%, on a 60-day note
would be
a. $6,000.
b. $3,333.
c. $1,500.
d. $1,000.
68. The interest charged on a $50,000 note payable, at the rate of 8%, on a 3-month note
would be
a. $4,000.
b. $2,000.
c. $1,000.
d. $667.
69. The interest charged on a $50,000 note payable, at the rate of 6%, on a 2-month note
would be
a. $3,000.
b. $1,500.
c. $750.
d. $500.
70. On October 1, 2010, Pennington Company issued a $40,000, 10%, nine-month interestbearing
note. If the Pennington Company is preparing financial statements at December
31, 2010, the adjusting entry for accrued interest will include a:
a. credit to Notes Payable of $1,000.
b. debit to Interest Expense of $1,000
c. credit to Interest Payable of $2,000.
d. debit to Interest Expense of $1,500.
71. On October 1, 2010, Pennington Company issued a $40,000, 10%, nine-month interestbearing
note. Assuming interest was accrued in June 30, 2011, the entry to record the
payment of the note on July 1, 2011, will include a:
a. debit to Interest Expense of $1,000.
b. credit to Cash of $40,000
c. debit to Interest Payable of $3,000.
d. debit to Notes Payable of $43,000.
72. Crawford Company has total proceeds (before segregation of sales taxes) from sales of
$4,770. If the sales tax is 6%, the amount to be credited to the account Sales is:
a. $4,770.
b. $4,484.
c. $5,056.
d. $4,500.
73. Reliable Insurance Company collected a premium of $15,000 for a 1-year insurance policy
on May 1. What amount should Reliable report as a current liability for Unearned
Insurance Premiums at December 31?
a. $0.
b. $5,000.
c. $10,000.
d. $15,000.
74. A company receives $132, of which $12 is for sales tax. The journal entry to record the
sale would include a
a. debit to Sales Tax Expense for $12.
b. credit to Sales Tax Payable for $12.
c. debit to Sales for $132.
d. debit to Cash for $120.
75. A company receives $174, of which $14 is for sales tax. The journal entry to record the
sale would include a
a debit to Sales Tax Expense for $14.
b. debit to Sales Tax Payable for $14.
c. debit to Sales for $174.
d. debit to Cash for $174.
76. A retail store credited the Sales account for the sales price and the amount of sales tax on
sales. If the sales tax rate is 5% and the balance in the Sales account amounted to
$315,000, what is the amount of the sales taxes owed to the taxing agency?
a. $300,000
b. $315,000
c. $15,750
d. $15,000
77. On January 1, 2010, Howard Company, a calendar-year company, issued $600,000 of
notes payable, of which $150,000 is due on January 1 for each of the next four years. The
proper balance sheet presentation on December 31, 2010, is
a. Current Liabilities, $600,000.
b. Long-term Debt, $600,000.
c. Current Liabilities, $300,000; Long-term Debt, $300,000.
d. Current Liabilities, $150,000; Long-term Debt, $450,000.
78. On January 1, 2010, Donahue Company, a calendar-year company, issued $400,000 of
notes payable, of which $100,000 is due on January 1 for each of the next four years. The
proper balance sheet presentation on December 31, 2010, is
a. Current Liabilities, $400,000.
b. Long-term Debt , $400,000.
c. Current Liabilities, $100,000; Long-term Debt, $300,000.
d. Current Liabilities, $300,000; Long-term Debt, $100,000.
79. A cash register tape shows cash sales of $1,500 and sales taxes of $120. The journal
entry to record this information is
a. Cash ................................................................................... 1,620
Sales.......................................................................... 1,620
b. Cash ................................................................................... 1,620
Sales Tax Payable ..................................................... 120
Sales.......................................................................... 1,500
c. Cash ................................................................................... 1,500
Sales Tax Expense ............................................................. 120
Sales.......................................................................... 1,620
d. Cash ................................................................................... 1,620
Sales.......................................................................... 1,500
Sales Taxes Revenue ................................................ 120
80. Ed’s Bookstore has collected $750 in sales taxes during April. If sales taxes must be
remitted to the state government monthly, what entry will Ed's Bookstore make to show
the April remittance?
a. Sales Taxes Payable .......................................................... 750
Cash .......................................................................... 750
b. Sales Tax Expense............................................................. 750
Cash .......................................................................... 750
c. Sales Tax Expense............................................................. 750
Sales Taxes Payable ................................................. 750
d. No entry required.
81. Layton Company does not ring up sales taxes separately on the cash register. Total
receipts for October amounted to $18,900. If the sales tax rate is 5%, what amount must
be remitted to the state for October's sales taxes?
a. $900
b. $945
c. $45
d. It cannot be determined.
82. Valerie's Salon has total receipts for the month of $16,430 including sales taxes. If the
sales tax rate is 6%, what are Valerie's sales for the month?
a. $15,444.20
b. $17,415.80
c. $15,500.00
d. It cannot be determined.
83. The amount of sales tax collected by a retail store when making sales is
a. a miscellaneous revenue for the store.
b. a current liability.
c. not recorded because it is a tax paid by the customer.
d. recorded as an operating expense.
84. A retail store credited the Sales account for the sales price and the amount of sales tax on
sales. If the sales tax rate is 5% and the balance in the Sales account amounted to
$189,000, what is the amount of the sales taxes owed to the taxing agency?
a. $180,000
b. $189,000
c. $9,450
d. $9,000
85. Advances from customers are classified as a(n)
a. revenue.
b. expense.
c. current asset.
d. current liability.
86. The current portion of long-term debt should
a. be paid immediately.
b. be reclassified as a current liability.
c. be classified as a long-term liability.
d. not be separated from the long-term portion of debt.
87. Sales taxes collected by a retailer are expenses
a. of the retailer.
b. of the customers.
c. of the government.
d. that are not recognized by the retailer until they are submitted to the government.
88. Sales taxes collected by a retailer are reported as
a. contingent liabilities.
b. revenues.
c. expenses.
d. current liabilities.
89. Julie's Boutique has total receipts for the month of $29,295 including sales taxes. If the
sales tax rate is 5%, what are Julie's sales for the month?
a. $27,831
b. $27,900
c. $29,295
d. It cannot be determined.
90. A cash register tape shows cash sales of $1,500 and sales taxes of $90. The journal entry
to record this information is
a. Cash................................................................................... 1,500
Sales.......................................................................... 1,500
b. Cash................................................................................... 1,590
Sales Tax Revenue.................................................... 90
Sales.......................................................................... 1,500
c. Cash................................................................................... 1,500
Sales Tax Expense............................................................. 90
Sales.......................................................................... 1,590
d. Cash................................................................................... 1,590
Sales.......................................................................... 1,500
Sales Taxes Payable ................................................. 90
91. Jim's Pharmacy has collected $600 in sales taxes during March. If sales taxes must be
remitted to the state government monthly, what entry will Jim's Pharmacy make to show
the March remittance?
a. Sales Tax Expense............................................................. 600
Cash .......................................................................... 600
b. Sales Taxes Payable .......................................................... 600
Cash .......................................................................... 600
c. Sales Tax Expense............................................................. 600
Sales Taxes Payable ................................................. 600
d. No entry required.
92. Oakley Company does not ring up sales taxes separately on the cash register. Total
receipts for February amounted to $28,600. If the sales tax rate is 4%, what amount must
be remitted to the state for February's sales taxes?
a. $1,144
b. $1,100
c. $1,716
d. It cannot be determined.
93. Any balance in an unearned revenue account is reported as a(n)
a. current liability.
b. long-term debt.
c. revenue.
d. unearned liability.
94. Pickett Company typically sells subscriptions on an annual basis, and publishes six times
a year. The magazine sells 60,000 subscriptions in January at $15 each. What entry is
made in January to record the sale of the subscriptions?
a. Subscriptions Receivable.................................................... 900,000
Subscription Revenue ................................................ 900,000
b. Cash ................................................................................... 900,000
Unearned Subscription Revenue................................ 900,000
c. Subscriptions Receivable.................................................... 150,000
Unearned Subscription Revenue................................ 150,000
d. Prepaid Subscriptions ......................................................... 900,000
Cash........................................................................... 900,000
95. Hilton Company issued a four-year interest-bearing note payable for $300,000 on January
1, 2009. Each January the company is required to pay $75,000 on the note. How will this
note be reported on the December 31, 2010 balance sheet?
a. Long-term debt, $300,000.
b. Long-term debt, $225,000.
c. Long-term debt, $150,000; Long-term debt due within one year, $75,000.
d. Long-term debt, $225,000; Long-term debt due within one year, $75,000.
96. Kelly Rice has a large consulting practice. New clients are required to pay one-half of the
consulting fees up front. The balance is paid at the conclusion of the consultation. How
does Rice account for the cash received at the end of the engagement?
a. Cash
Unearned Consulting Revenue
b. Cash
Earned Consulting Revenue
c. Prepaid Consulting Fees
Earned Consulting Revenue
d. No entry is required when the engagement is concluded.
97. Which one of the following is shown first under current liabilities by many companies as a
matter of custom?
a. Accrued expenses
b. Current maturities of long-term debt
c. Sales taxes payable
d. Notes payable and accounts payable
98. Working capital is
a. current assets plus current liabilities.
b. current assets minus current liabilities.
c. current assets divided by current liabilities.
d. current assets multiplied by current liabilities.
99. The current ratio is
a. current assets plus current liabilities.
b. current assets minus current liabilities.
c. current assets divided by current liabilities.
d. current assets multiplied by current liabilities.
100. Hardy Company has current assets of $90,000, current liabilities of $100,000, long-term,
assets of $180,000 and long-term liabilities of $80,000. Hardy Company's working capital
and its current ratio are:
a. $90,000 and .90:1.
b. -$10,000 and 1.50:1.
c. $10,000 and .90:1.
d. -10,000 and .90:1.
101. Madden Electric began operations in 2010 and provides a one year warranty on the
products it sells. They estimate that 10,000 of the 200,000 units sold in 2010 will be
returned for repairs and that these repairs will cost $6 per unit. The cost of repairing 8,000
units presented for service in 2010 was $48,000. Madden should report
a. warranty expense of $12,000 for 2010.
b. warranty expense of $60,000 for 2010.
c. estimated warranty liability of $60,000 on December 31, 2010.
d. no warranty obligation on December 31, 2010, since this is only a contingent liability.
102. Lincoln Company sells 600 units of a product that has a one-year warranty on parts. The
average cost of honoring one warranty contract is $50. During the year 30 contracts are
honored at a cost of $1,500. It is estimated that 60 contracts will be honored in the
following year. The adjusting entry at the end of the current year will include a
a. credit to Estimated Warranty Liability for $3,000.
b. credit to Estimated Warranty Liability for $4,500.
c. debit to Warranty Expense for $1,500.
d. debit to Warranty Expense for $4,500.
103. A contingent liability need only be disclosed in the financial statement notes when the
likelihood of the contingency is
a. reasonably possible.
b. probable.
c. remote.
d. unlikely.
104. If a contingent liability is reasonably estimable and it is reasonably possible that the
contingency will occur, the contingent liability
a. should be recorded in the accounts.
b. should be disclosed in the notes accompanying the financial statements.
c. should not be recorded or disclosed in the notes until the contingency actually
happens.
d. must be paid for the amount estimated.
106. If a liability is dependent on a future event, it is called a
a. potential liability.
b. hypothetical liability.
c. probabilistic liability.
d. contingent liability.
107. Current maturities of long-term debt
a. require an adjusting entry.
b. are optionally reported on the balance sheet.
c. can be properly classified during balance sheet preparation, with no adjusting entry
required.
d. are not considered to be current liabilities.
108. A contingency that is remote
a. should be disclosed in the financial statements.
b. must be accrued as a loss.
c. does not need to be disclosed.
d. is recorded as a contingent liability.
109. The accounting for warranty costs is based on the
a. going concern principle.
b. matching principle.
c. conservatism principle.
d. objectivity principle.
110. Warranty expenses are reported on the income statement as
a. administrative expenses.
b. part of cost of goods sold.
c. contra-revenues.
d. selling expenses.
111. Shaw Company sells 2,000 units of its product for $500 each. The selling price includes a
one-year warranty on parts. It is expected that 3% of the units will be defective and that
repair costs will average $50 per unit. In the year of sale, warranty contracts are honored
on 40 units for a total cost of $2,000. What amount should Shaw Company accrue on
December 31 for estimated warranty costs?
a. $3,000
b. $2,000
c. $1,000
d. $15,000
112. Shaw Company sells 2,000 units of its product for $500 each. The selling price includes a
one-year warranty on parts. It is expected that 3% of the units will be defective and that
repair costs will average $50 per unit. In the year of sale, warranty contracts are honored
on 40 units for a total cost of $2,000. What amount will be reported on Shaw Company's
balance sheet as Estimated Warranty Liability on December 31, 2010?
a. $2,000
b. $3,000
c. $1,000
d. It cannot be determined.
113. Which of the following items would not be identified if a contingent liability were disclosed
in a financial statement footnote?
a. The nature of the item
b. The expected outcome of the future event
c. A numerical probability of the expected loss
d. The amount of the contingency, if known
114. Disclosure of a contingent liability is usually made
a. parenthetically, in the body of the balance sheet.
b. parenthetically, in the body of the income statement.
c. in a note to the financial statements.
d. in the management discussion section of the financial statement.
115. Current liabilities generally appear
a. after long-term debt on the balance sheet.
b. in decreasing order of magnitude on the balance sheet.
c. in order of maturity on the balance sheet.
d. in increasing order of magnitude on the balance sheet.
116. Which of the following employees would likely receive a salary instead of wages?
a. Store clerk
b. Factory employee
c. Sales manager
d. Manual laborer
117. The total compensation earned by an employee is called
a. take-home pay.
b. net pay.
c. net earnings.
d. gross earnings.
118. Which one of the following payroll taxes does not result in a payroll tax expense for the
employer?
a. FICA tax
b. Federal income tax
c. Federal unemployment tax
d. State unemployment tax
119. Ann Ellis's regular rate of pay is $12 per hour with one and one-half times her regular rate
for any hours which exceed 40 hours per week. She worked 48 hours last week.
Therefore, her gross wages were
a. $576.
b. $480.
c. $624.
d. $864.
120. Assuming a FICA tax rate of 8% on the first $100,000 in wages, and a federal income tax
rate of 20% on all wages, what would be an employee's net pay for the year if he earned
$110,000 for the year?
a. $110,000
b. $79,200
c. $88,000
d. $80,000
121. Most companies involved in interstate commerce are required to compute overtime at
a. the worker's regular hourly wage.
b. 1.25 times the worker's regular hourly wage.
c. 1.5 times the worker's regular hourly wage.
d. 2.5 times the worker's regular hourly wage.
122. Jan Goll has worked 44 hours this week. She worked in excess of 8 hours each day. Her
regular hourly wage is $15 per hour. What are Jan's gross wages for the week? (The
company Jan works for is in compliance with the Fair Labor Standards Act.)
a. $660
b. $690
c. $990
d. $720
123. FICA taxes do not provide workers with
a. life insurance.
b. supplemental retirement.
c. employment disability.
d. medical benefits.
124. Employee payroll deductions include each of the following except
a. federal unemployment taxes.
b. federal income taxes.
c. FICA taxes.
d. insurance, pension plans, and union dues.
125. The journal entry to record the payroll for a period will include a credit to Wages and
Salaries Payable for the gross
a. amount less all payroll deductions.
b. amount of all paychecks issued.
c. pay less taxes payable.
d. pay less voluntary deductions.
126. The amount of income taxes withheld from employees is dependent on each of the
following except the
a. employee's gross earnings.
b. employee's net pay.
c. length of the pay period.
d. number of allowances claimed by the employee.
127. The following totals for the month of April were taken from the payroll register of Kirk
Company.
Salaries $24,000
FICA taxes withheld 1,100
Income taxes withheld 5,000
Medical insurance deductions 900
Federal unemployment taxes 64
State unemployment taxes 432
The journal entry to record the monthly payroll on April 30 would include a
a. debit to Salaries Expense for $24,000.
b. credit to Salaries Payable for $24,000.
c. debit to Salaries Payable for $24,000.
d. debit to Salaries Expense for $17,000.
128. The following totals for the month of April were taken from the payroll register of Kirk
Company.
Salaries $24,000
FICA taxes withheld 1,100
Income taxes withheld 5,000
Medical insurance deductions 900
Federal unemployment taxes 64
State unemployment taxes 432
The entry to record the payment of net payroll would include a
a. debit to Salaries Payable for $16,504.
b. debit to Salaries Payable for $17,000.
c. debit to Salaries Payable for $15,900.
d. credit to Cash for $18,100.
129. The following totals for the month of April were taken from the payroll register of Kirk
Company.
Salaries $24,000
FICA taxes withheld 1,100
Income taxes withheld 5,000
Medical insurance deductions 900
Federal unemployment taxes 64
State unemployment taxes 432
The entry to record accrual of Kirk Company’s payroll taxes would include a
a. debit to Payroll Tax Expense for $496.
b. debit to Payroll Tax Expense for $1,596.
c. credit to FICA Taxes Payable for $2,200.
d. credit to Payroll Tax Expense for $496.
130. The following totals for the month of April were taken from the payroll register of Kirk
Company.
Salaries $24,000
FICA taxes withheld 1,100
Income taxes withheld 5,000
Medical insurance deductions 900
Federal unemployment taxes 64
State unemployment taxes 432
The entry to record the accrual of federal unemployment taxes would include a
a. credit to Federal Unemployment Taxes Payable for $64.
b. debit to Federal Unemployment Taxes Expense for $64.
c. credit to Payroll Tax Expense for $64.
d. debit to Federal Unemployment Taxes Payable for $64
131. Julie Norman, earns $20 per hour for a 40 hour work week and $30 per hour for overtime
work. If Julie works 44 hours, her gross earnings are:
a. $880.
b. $920.
c. $1,045.
d. $1,320.
132. Gary Dittman, an employee of Hopkins Company, has gross earnings for the month of
October of $8,000. FICA taxes are 8% of gross earnings, federal income taxes amount to
$1,270 for the month, state income taxes are 2% of gross earnings, and authorizes
voluntary deductions of $20 per month to the United Way. What is the net pay for Gary?
a. $5,922.80.
b. $5,910.00.
c. $5,930.00.
d. $5,935.40.
133. FICA Taxes Payable was credited for $9,000 in the entry when Peltry Company recorded
payroll. When Peltry Company records employer's payroll taxes, FICA Taxes Payable
should be credited for:
a. $0.
b. $9,000.
c. $18,000.
d. some other amount.
134. The following totals for the month of June were taken from the payroll register of Ford
Company.
Salaries $20,000
FICA taxes withheld 1,533
Income taxes withheld 4,400
Medical insurance deductions 800
Federal unemployment taxes 160
State unemployment taxes 1,000
The journal entry to record the monthly payroll on June 30 would include a
a. debit to Salaries Expense for $20,000.
b. credit to Salaries Payable for $20,000.
c. debit to Salaries Payable for $20,000.
d. debit to Salaries Expense for $13,267
135. The following totals for the month of June were taken from the payroll register of Ford
Company.
Salaries $20,000
FICA taxes withheld 1,533
Income taxes withheld 4,400
Medical insurance deductions 800
Federal unemployment taxes 160
State unemployment taxes 1,000
The entry to record the payment of net payroll would include a
a. debit to Salaries Payable for $12,107.
b. debit to Salaries Payable for $13,267.
c. debit to Salaries Payable for $12,267.
d. credit to Cash for $12,267.
136. The following totals for the month of June were taken from the payroll register of Ford
Company.
Salaries $20,000
FICA taxes withheld 1,533
Income taxes withheld 4,400
Medical insurance deductions 800
Federal unemployment taxes 160
State unemployment taxes 1,000
The entry to record accrual of Ford Company’s payroll taxes would include a
a. debit to Payroll Tax Expense for $2,693
b. credit to Payroll Tax Expense for $2,693
c. credit to FICA Taxes Payable for $1,160.
d. credit to Payroll Tax Expense for $1,160.
137. The following totals for the month of June were taken from the payroll register of Ford
Company.
Salaries $20,000
FICA taxes withheld 1,533
Income taxes withheld 4,400
Medical insurance deductions 800
Federal unemployment taxes 160
State unemployment taxes 1,000
The entry to record the accrual of federal unemployment taxes would include a
a. credit to Federal Unemployment Taxes Payable for $160.
b. credit to Federal Unemployment Taxes Expense for $160.
c. credit to Payroll Tax Expense for $160.
d. debit to Federal Unemployment Taxes Payable for $160.
138. Which one of the following payroll taxes is not withheld from an employee's wages
because it is not levied on the employee?
a. Federal income tax
b. Federal unemployment tax
c. State income tax
d. FICA tax
139. By January 31 following the end of a calendar year, an employer is required to provide
each employee with a(n)
a. state unemployment tax form.
b. federal unemployment tax form 940.
c. wage and tax statement form W-2.
d. employee's withholding allowance certificate form W-4.
140. Which of the following payroll taxes are usually filed and remitted annually?
a. Federal unemployment taxes
b. FICA taxes
c. State unemployment taxes
d. Federal and state unemployment taxes
141. The tax that is paid equally by the employer and employee is the
a. federal income tax.
b. federal unemployment tax.
c. state unemployment tax.
d. FICA tax.
142. The effective federal unemployment tax rate is usually
a. 6.2%.
b. 0.8%.
c. 5.4%.
d. 8.0%.
143. The treasurer's department is responsible for
a. approving the payroll.
b. maintaining payroll records.
c. preparing payroll tax returns.
d. signing payroll checks.
144. The payroll is paid by the
a. personnel department.
b. payroll department.
c. cashier.
d. treasurer's department.
a145. Post-retirement benefits consist of payments by employers to retired employees for
a. health care and life insurance only.
b. health care and pensions only.
c. life insurance and pensions only.
d. health care, life insurance, and pensions.
,
a146. The paid absence that is most commonly accrued is
a. voting leave.
b. vacation time.
c. maternity leave.
d. disability leave.
a147. Flott Company has ten employees who each earn $160 per day. If they accumulate
vacation time at the rate of 1.5 vacation days for each month worked, the amount of
vacation benefits that should be accrued at the end of the month is
a. $160.
b. $1,600.
c. $2,400.
d. $240.
a148. An employer's estimated cost for post-retirement benefits for its employees should be
a. recognized as an expense when paid.
b. recognized as an expense during the employees' work years.
c. recognized as an expense during the employees' retirement years.
d. charged to the goodwill account because providing employees with benefits generates
employee goodwill.
149. A current liability is a debt the company reasonably expects to pay from existing current
assets within
a. one year.
b. the operating cycle.
c. one year or the operating cycle, whichever is longer.
d. one year or the operating cycle, whichever is shorter.
150. Which of the following statements concerning current liabilities is incorrect?
a. Current liabilities include unearned revenues.
b. A company that has more current liabilities than current assets is usually the subject of
some concern.
c. Current liabilities include prepaid expenses.
d. A current liability is a debt that can reasonably be expected to be paid out of existing
current assets or result in the creation of other current liabilities.
151. On August 1, 2010, a company borrowed cash and signed a one-year interest-bearing
note on which both the face value and interest are payable on August 1, 2011. How will
the note payable and the related interest be classified in the December 31, 2010, balance
sheet?
Note Payable Interest Payable
a. Current liability Noncurrent liability
b. Noncurrent liability Current liability
c. Current liability Current liability
d. Noncurrent liability Not shown
152. Companies report current liabilities on the balance sheet in
a. alphabetical order.
b. order of maturity.
c. random order.
d. order of magnitude.
153. A contingency need not be recorded nor disclosed when
a. it is probable the contingency will happen and the amount can be reasonably
estimated.
b. it is probable the contingency will happen but the amount cannot be reasonably
estimated.
c. it is reasonably possible the contingency will happen and the amount can be
reasonably estimated.
d. the possibility of the contingency happening is remote.
154. A contingent liability is recorded when the likelihood of the contingency is
a. remote.
b. reasonably possible.
c. probable.
d. nil or zero.
Ans: C
155. Nick Dent, an employee of Spottswood Company, has gross earnings for the month of
October of $6,000. FICA taxes are 8% of gross earnings, federal income taxes amount to
$952 for the month, state income taxes are 2% of gross earnings, and Nick authorizes
voluntary deductions of $15 per month to the United Fund. What is the net pay for Nick
Dent?
a. $4,442
b. $4,433
c. $4,448
d. $4,452
156. A payroll record that accumulates the gross earnings, deductions, and net pay by
employee for each pay period is the
a. withholding tax table.
b. employee earnings record.
c. payroll register.
d. Wage and Tax Statement.
157. The journal entry to record the payroll for Detwiler Company for the week ending January
8, would probably include a
a. credit to Office Salaries.
b. credit to Wages Expense.
c. debit to Federal Income Taxes Payable.
d. credit to FICA Taxes Payable.
158. Employer payroll taxes include all of the following except
a. FICA taxes.
b. federal unemployment taxes.
c. state unemployment taxes.
d. federal income taxes.
159. The record that provides a cumulative summary of each employee’s gross earnings,
payroll deductions, and net pay during the year and is required to be maintained to comply
with state and local federal law is the
a. register.
b. employee earnings record.
c. statement of earnings.
d. wage and tax statement.
a160. Post-retirement benefits include all of the following except
a. health care.
b. life insurance.
c. pensions.
d. vacation benefits.
BRIEF EXERCISES
BE 161
Kingery Sales Company has the following selected accounts after posting adjusting entries:
Accounts Payable $ 62,000
Notes Payable, 3-month 50,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Equipment 14,000
Notes Payable, 5-year, 6% 80,000
Payroll Tax Expense 4,000
Interest Payable 3,000
Mortgage Payable 120,000
Sales Tax Payable 38,000
Instructions
Prepare the current liability section of Kingery Sales Company's balance sheet, assuming
$20,000 of the mortgage is payable next year.
BE 162
Identify which of the following would be classified as current liabilities as of December 31, 2010:
1. Wages Payable
2. Bonds Payable, maturing in 2015
3. Interest Payable, due July 1, 2011
4. Taxes Payable
5. Notes Payable, due January 30, 2012
Ans: N/A,
Solution 162 (3 min.)
Current liabilities include: Wages Payable, Taxes Payable, and Interest Payable
BE 163
On December 1, Gilman Corporation borrowed $5,000 on a 90-day, 6% note. Prepare the entries
to record the issuance of the note, the accrual of interest at year end, and the payment of the
note.
BE 164
During December 2010, Markowitz Publishing sold 2,500 12-month annual magazine
subscriptions at a rate of $30 each. The first issues were mailed in February 2011. Prepare the
entries on Markowitz’s books to record the sale of the subscriptions and the mailing of the first
issues.
BE 165
Putman Company had cash sales of $54,250 (including taxes) for the month of June. Sales are
subject to 8.5% sales tax. Prepare the entry to record the sale.
BE 166
On December 1, Yung Company introduces a new product that includes a one-year warranty on
parts. In December, 500 units are sold. Management believes that 5% of the units will be
defective and that the average warranty costs will be $60 per unit. Prepare the adjusting entry at
December 31 to accrue the estimated warranty cost.
BE 167
Judy Reber’s regular hourly wage rate is $12, and she receives an hourly rate of $18 for work in
excess of 40 hours. During a March pay period, Judy works 47 hours. Judy’s federal income tax
withholding is $70, and she has no voluntary deductions. Compute Judy Reber’s gross earnings
and net pay for the pay period.
BE 168
Judy Reber’s regular hourly wage rate is $12, and she receives an hourly rate of $18 for work in
excess of 40 hours. During a March pay period, Judy works 47 hours. Judy’s federal income tax
withholding is $70, and she has no voluntary deductions. Prepare the journal entry to record
Judy’s pay for the period. Use March 15 for the end of the pay period.
BE 169
In February, gross earnings in Wine Company totaled $50,000. All earnings are subject to 8%
FICA taxes, 5.4% state unemployment taxes, and 0.8% federal unemployment taxes. Prepare the
entry to record January payroll tax expense.
*BE 170
Truman Company employees are entitled to one day’s vacation for each month worked. In
February, 60 employees worked the full month. Record the vacation pay liability for February
assuming the average daily pay for each employee is $90.
Ex. 176
Maddox Company sells televisions with a 2-year warranty. Past experience indicates that 2% of
the units sold will be returned during the warranty period for repairs. The average cost of repairs
under warranty is estimated to be $50 per unit. During 2010, 7,000 units were sold at an average
price of $400. During the year, repairs were made on 55 units at a cost of $2,400.
Instructions
Prepare journal entries to record the repairs made under warranty and estimated warranty
expense for the year.
Ex. 177
English Company billed its customers a total of $1,575,000 for the month of November. The total
includes a 5% state sales tax.
Instructions
(a) Determine the proper amount of revenue to report for the month.
(b) Prepare the general journal entry to record the revenue and related liabilities for the month.
Ex. 178
Hibbett Company does not segregate sales and sales taxes on its cash register. Its register total
for the month is $259,700, which includes a 6% sales tax.
Instructions
Compute sales taxes payable, and make the entry to record sales and sales taxes
payable.
Ex. 179
Kaiser Coat Company, which prepares annual financial statements, is preparing adjusting entries
on December 31. Analysis indicates the following:
1. The company is the defendant in an employee discrimination lawsuit involving $50,000 of
damages. Legal counsel believes it is unlikely that the company will have to pay any
damages.
2. December 31st is a Friday. The employees of the company have been paid on Monday,
December 27th for the previous week which ended on Friday, December 24th. The company
employs 30 people who earn $100 per day and 15 people who earn $150 per day. All
employees work 5-day weeks.
3. The company is a defendant in a $500,000 product liability lawsuit. Legal counsel believes the
company probably will have to pay the amount requested.
a4. Employees are entitled to one day's vacation for each month worked. All employees
described above in (2.) worked the month of December.
Instructions
Prepare any adjusting entries necessary at the end of the year.
Ex. 180
Based on the following information, compute the (1) current ratio and (2) working capital.
Current assets $240,000
Total assets 900,000
Current liabilities 80,000
Total liabilities 500,000
Ex. 181
Mehring's 2010 financial statements contained the following data (in millions).
Current assets $16,890 Accounts receivable $1,550
Total assets 42,430 Interest expense 980
Current liabilities 15,160 Income tax expense 1,270
Total liabilities 32,580 Net income 2,230
Cash 380
Instructions
Compute these values:
(a) Working capital. (b) Current ratio.
Ex. 182
Marx Company sells exercise machines for home use. The machines carry a 2-year warranty.
Past experience indicates that 6% of the units sold will be returned during the warranty period for
repairs. The average cost of repairs under warranty is $60 for labor and $90 for parts per unit.
During 2010, 2,500 exercise machines were sold at an average price of $800. During the year, 60
of the machines that were sold were repaired at the average price per unit.
Instructions
(a) Prepare the journal entry to record the repairs made under warranty.
(b) Prepare the journal entry to record the estimated warranty expense for the year.
Ex. 183
Golf Pro Publications publishes a golf magazine for women. The magazine sells for $3 a copy on
the newsstand. Yearly subscriptions to the magazine cost $24 per year (12 issues). During
December 2010, Golf Pro Publications sells 9,000 copies of the golf magazine at newsstands and
receives payment for 15,000 subscriptions for 2011. Financial statements are prepared monthly.
Instructions
(a) Prepare the December 2010 journal entries to record the newsstand sales and subscriptions
received.
(b) Prepare the necessary adjusting entry on January 31, 2011. The January 2011 issue has
been mailed to subscribers.
Ex. 184
Delaney Company sells a product that includes a one-year warranty on parts and labor. During
the year, 10,000 units are sold. Delaney expects that 3% of the units will be defective and that the
average warranty cost will be $50 per unit. Actual warranty costs incurred during the year were
$14,000.
Instructions
Prepare the journal entries to record (a) the estimated warranty costs and (b) the actual
costs incurred.
Ex. 185
Foster Company is preparing adjusting entries at December 31. An analysis reveals the following:
1. During December, Foster Company sold 2,000 units of a product that carries a 60-day
warranty. The sales for this product totaled $100,000. The company expects 4% of the units
to need repair under the warranty and it estimates that the average repair cost per unit will be
$15.
2. The company has been sued by a disgruntled employee. Legal counsel believes that it is
reasonably possible that the company will have to pay $200,000 in damages.
3. The company has been named as one of several defendants in a $400,000 damage suit.
Legal counsel believes it is unlikely that the company will have to pay any damages.
a4. Employees earn vacation pay at a rate of 1 day per month. During December, ten employees
qualify for vacation pay. Their average daily wage is $90 per employee.
Instructions
Prepare adjusting entries, if required, for each of the four items.
Ex. 186
Eve Trek's regular hourly wage is $14 an hour. She receives overtime pay at the rate of time and
a half. The FICA tax rate is 8%. Eve is paid every two weeks. For the first pay period in January,
Eve worked 86 hours of which 6 were overtime hours. Eve's federal income tax withholding is
$300 and her state income tax withholding is $100. Eve has authorized that $50 be withheld from
her check each pay period for savings bonds.
Instructions
Compute Eve Trek's gross earnings and net pay for the pay period showing each payroll
deduction in arriving at net pay.
Ex. 187
Cindy Morrow's regular hourly wage rate is $12, and she receives a wage of 1 1/2 times her
regular rate for work in excess of 40 hours. During a June pay period, Cindy worked 46 hours.
Cindy's federal income tax withholding is $58, and her only voluntary deduction is $25 for group
hospitalization insurance.
Instructions
Compute Cindy's (a) gross earnings and (b) net pay for the pay period.
Ex. 188
Employee earnings records for Shoemaker Company reveal the following gross earnings for four
employees through the pay period of December 15.
C. Glenn $95,500 M. Ramirez $ 97,000
K. Mintz $98,200 T. Tanner $102,000
For the pay period ending December 31, each employee's gross earnings is $3,800. The FICA
tax rate is 8% on gross earnings of $100,000.
Instructions
Compute the FICA withholdings that should be made for each employee for the December 31 pay
period. (Show computations.)
Ex. 189
Selected data from a February payroll register for Cheney Company are presented below. Some
amounts are intentionally omitted.
Gross earnings:
Regular $11,100 State income taxes $(3)
Overtime (1) Union dues 100
Total (2) Total deductions (4)
Deductions: Net pay $9,480
FICA taxes $1,000 Accounts debited:
Federal income taxes 1,420 Warehouse wages (5)
Store wages $5,000
FICA taxes are 8%. State income taxes are 4% of gross earnings.
Instructions
(a) Fill in the missing amounts.
(b) Journalize the February payroll and the payment of the payroll.
Ex. 190
Haney Company's payroll for the week ending January 15 amounted to $95,000 for Office
Salaries and $150,000 for Store Wages. None of the employees has reached the earnings limits
specified for federal or state employer payroll taxes. The following deductions were withheld from
employees' salaries and wages:
Federal Income Tax $50,000
State Income Tax 9,000
FICA Taxes 19,600
Union Dues 2,700
United Fund 1,800
Federal unemployment tax (FUTA) rate is 6.2% less a credit equal to the rate paid for state
unemployment taxes. The state unemployment tax (SUTA) rate is 5.4%.
Instructions
Prepare the journal entry to record the weekly payroll ending January 15 and also the employer’s
payroll tax expense on the payroll.
Ex. 191
Pam Norman had earned (accumulated) salary of $96,000 through November 30. Her December
salary amounted to $8,500. Sam Hall began employment on December 1 and will be paid his first
month's salary of $5,000 on December 31. Income tax withholding for December for each
employee is as follows:
Pam Norman Sam Hall
Federal Income Tax $2,180 $990
State Income Tax 390 180
The following payroll tax rates are applicable:
FICA tax on first $90,000 8%
FUTA tax on first $7,000 6.2%*
SUTA tax on first $7,000 5.4%
*Less a credit equal to the state unemployment contribution
Instructions
Record the payroll for the two employees at December 31 and record the employer's share of
payroll tax expense for the December 31 payroll.
Ex. 192
Assume that the payroll records of Darby Oil Company provided the following information for the
weekly payroll ended November 30, 2010.
Year-to-Date
Hourly Federal Earnings Through
Employee Hours Worked Pay Rate Income Tax Union Dues Previous Week
C. Brown 44 $45 $362 $9 $101,000
J. Polk 46 10 65 5 23,200
K. Glass 39 20 118 — 5,700
M. Raney 42 22 169 7 49,500
Additional information: All employees are paid overtime at time and a half for hours worked in
excess of 40 per week. The FICA tax rate is 8% for the first $100,000 of each employee's annual
earnings. The employer pays unemployment taxes of 6.2% (5.4% for state and .8% for federal)
on the first $7,000 of each employee's annual earnings.
Instructions
(a) Prepare the payroll register for the pay period.
(b) Prepare general journal entries to record the payroll and payroll taxes.
Ex. 193
Donna Grace earns a salary of $8,000 per month during the year. FICA taxes are 8% on the first
$100,000 of gross earnings. Federal unemployment insurance taxes are 6.2% of the first $7,000;
however, a credit is allowed equal to the state unemployment insurance taxes of 5.4% on the
$7,000. During the year, $27,300 was withheld for federal income taxes and $5,700 was withheld
for state income taxes.
Instructions
(a) Prepare a journal entry summarizing the payment of Grace’s total salary during the year.
(b) Prepare a journal entry summarizing the employer payroll tax expense on Grace’s salary for
the year.
(c) Determine the cost of employing Grace for the year.
Ex. 194
Hiatt Company had the following payroll data for the year:
Gross earnings of employees $640,000
Employee earnings not subject to FICA tax 140,000
Employee earnings not subject to FUTA or SUTA tax 490,000
Assuming the following:
FICA tax rate 8%
State Unemployment tax rate 5.4% (SUTA)
Federal Unemployment tax rate .8% (FUTA)
Instructions
Compute Hiatt's payroll tax expense for the year. Make a summary journal entry to record the
payroll tax expense.
Ex. 195
In March, gross earnings of Ransey Company totaled $150,000. All earnings are subject to FICA
taxes, 5.4% state unemployment taxes, and 0.8% federal unemployment taxes.
Instructions
(a) Compute the employer's payroll tax expense.
(b) Prepare the entry to record payroll taxes.
Ex. 196
The following payroll liability accounts are included in the ledger of Eckstrom Company on
January 1, 2010:
FICA Taxes Payable $1,750
Federal Income Taxes Payable 4,000
State Income Taxes Payable 665
Federal Unemployment Taxes Payable 175
State Unemployment Taxes Payable 1,190
Union Dues Payable 400
Health Insurance Premium Payable 5,000
Christmas Club Savings Payable 1,500
In January, the following transactions occurred:
Jan. 9 Sent a check for $5,000 to Blue Cross and Blue Shield.
11 Deposited a check for $5,750 in Federal Reserve Bank for FICA taxes and federal
income taxes withheld.
14 Sent a check for $400 to the union treasurer for union dues.
18 Paid state income taxes withheld from employees.
21 Paid state and federal unemployment taxes.
22 Sent a $1,500 check to a Savings and Loan for the Christmas Club withholdings.
Instructions
Journalize the January transactions
Ex. 197
Match the codes assigned to the following payroll functions to the procedures listed below:
H Hiring Employees
T Timekeeping
PRE Preparing the Payroll
PAY Paying the Payroll
____ 1. Distribution of checks by the treasurer
____ 2. Supervisor approves hours worked
____ 3. Documentation of employee hiring
____ 4. Maintenance of payroll records
____ 5. Verification of payroll calculations
____ 6. Screening and interviewing of job applicants
____ 7. Use of a time clock
____ 8. Signing prenumbered payroll checks
COMPLETION STATEMENTS
198. A current liability is a debt that can be expected to be paid within ______________ year or the ______________, whichever is longer.
199. Liabilities are classified on the balance sheet as being _______________ liabilities or
______________ liabilities.
.
200. Obligations in written form are called ______________ and usually require the borrower
to pay interest.
201. With an interest-bearing note, a borrower must pay the ________________ of the note
plus _________________ at maturity.
202. Sales taxes collected from customers are a ______________ of the business until they
are remitted to the taxing agency.
203. The current ratio is current assets divided by ______________.
204. A contingent liability should be recorded in the accounts if it is ______________ that the
contingency will occur and the amount is ______________.
205. Two federal taxes which are levied against employees' wages that must be deducted in
arriving at net pay are (1)______________ taxes and (2)______________ taxes.
206. The employer incurs a payroll tax expense equal to the amount contributed by each
employee for ______________ taxes.
207. A payroll tax expense which is borne entirely by the employer is the federal
_______________ tax.
MATCHING
208. Match the items below by entering the appropriate code letter in the space provided.
A. Current liability F. Federal income taxes
B. Notes Payable G. FICA taxes
C. Wage and Tax Statement H. Federal unemployment taxes
D. Current ratio aI. Post-retirement benefits
E. Contingent liabilities aJ. Pension plan
____ 1. Levied against employees' wages without limit.
____ 2. An obligation in the form of a written promissory note.
____ 3. An agreement whereby an employer provides benefits to employees after they retire.
____ 4. A payroll tax expense levied only against the employer based on employees' wages.
____ 5. A measure of a company’s liquidity.
____ 6. A debt than can reasonably be expected to be paid from current assets.
____ 7. A form showing gross earnings and income taxes withheld.
____ 8. Levied against employees' wages with a maximum limit.
____ 9. Payments by employers to retired employees.
____ 10. A potential liability that may become an actual liability in the future.
SHORT-ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
S-A E 209
A company will incur product repair costs in the future if products that it sells currently under
warranty are brought in for repair during the warranty period. The company will also incur bad
debts expense in the future if customers who buy on credit currently are unable to pay their
accounts. Are the accounting procedures for these two contingent costs (warranty expense and
bad debt expense) related or guided by the same accounting principle? Briefly explain.
S-A E 210
What is a contingent liability? Give an example of a contingent liability that is usually recorded in
the accounts.
S-A E 211
An employee's net pay consists of gross pay less mandatory and voluntary payroll deductions.
Identify the mandatory payroll deductions and give two or three examples of common voluntary
deductions. Are these deductions recognized as payroll expenses by the employer? What type of
payroll expenses does the employer incur related to having a payroll?
S-A E 212
(a) Identify the three types of employer payroll taxes.
(b) How are tax liability accounts and payroll tax expense accounts classified in the financial
statements?
S-A E 213 (Ethics)
Hannah Company maintains two separate accounts payable computer systems. One is known to
all the users, and is used to process payments to vendors. Employees enter the vendor code, or
the name and address of new vendors, the amount, the account, and so on. The other system is
a secret one. It is used to cross-check the vendors against an approved vendor list. If a vendor is
not listed as approved, the payment process is halted. Internal audit employees seek to verify the
existence of a bona fide claim by the vendor. All inquiries are made at the top management level,
and very discreetly. No one but top management, the internal audit staff, and the Board of
Directors of the company is even aware of the second system.
Required:
Is it ethical for a company to have a secret system like the one described? Explain.
S-A E 214 (Communication)
El-Fab is a manufacturing company that makes various industrial components out of aluminum.
El-Fab is located in a large city in the northeastern United States. Various labor disputes have
occurred in the city, some with acrimonious public debate concerning the honesty of
management. During one of El-Fab's routine employee meetings, Gary Kuehn, a production
worker, brought up the issue of the cost of a worker as reported in the company's annual report.
The cost was given as $32,000 per year. Gary points out that the average wage rate of $12 per
hour is at most around $25,000 in gross wages. He asks whether the company is adding in
overtime, because if so, the figures are misleading because the employees are not allowed to
work overtime.
Required:
Prepare a note explaining to Mr. Kuehn how El-Fab might calculate a cost per employee that is
greater than gross wages. Explain in general terms only. Do not use any calculations.

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 102 Kilobytes

Information_system_12

TRUE/FALSE
1.    Information technologies are a major support tool for making structured decisions.
2.    Unstructured decisions are often used in sales forecasting.
3.    Semistructured and unstructured decisions are challenging because they involve multiple criteria, and often users have to choose between conflicting objectives.
4.    Data is collected from a variety of sources during the design phase of decision-making.
5.    The intelligence phase of a decision-making process has three parts.
6.    Many third-party vendors, such as Nielsen and Dow Jones, specialize in collecting data about the marketplace, competition, and the general status of the economy.
7.    Information technology provides a high level of support for the design phase of decision making.
8.    Generally, information technologies are more useful in the design phase than in the intelligence and choice phases.
9.    A DSS can do a follow-up assessment on how well a solution is performing.
10.    A DSS must be interactive.
11.    A DSS typically provides support for only the managerial and higher organizational levels.
12.    A database is one of the main components of a DSS.
13.    A model base is another name for a database.
14.    A model base management system (MBMS) performs tasks similar to a DBMS in accessing, maintaining, and updating models in the model base.
15.    DSS supports what-if analysis.
16.    One of the features that may be available in future generations of DSSs is goal seeking, but current technology does not support this capability.
17.    A technical designer might be a computer specialist or a consultant from outside the company and can use a commercial DSS package or write the system’s code from scratch.
18.    Decision support system costs and benefits can be difficult to assess because these systems are focused on effectiveness rather than efficiency.
19.    The benefit of improving communication and interactions between management and employees is easy to quantify by using a DSS.
20.    A DSS is said to have achieved its goals if employees find it useful in doing their jobs.
21.    Executives themselves are sometimes the cause for the failure of an EIS.
22.    Some EISs don’t contain the information that senior executives need.
23.    Sometime the EIS administrative and builder modules are combined into one tool.
24.    A GSS will work for any group no matter what the level of sophistication nor size of the group.
25.    The Internet has made groupware obsolete.
26.    Desktop conferencing combines the advantages of video conferencing and real-time computer conferencing.
27.    GSS allow users to avoid unnecessary meetings.
28.    Most GSSs can superimpose the results of an analysis on a map.
29.    The GIS zoom feature creates pin maps that highlight locations meeting certain criteria, such as finding new a new store location based on population density.
30.    It is important to avoid using technical jargon when explaining the MSS system to executives.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.    Record keeping, payroll, and simple inventory problems are examples of ____ tasks.
a.    structured    c.    unstructured
b.    semistructured    d.    automated
2.    Preparing a budget is an example of a(n) ____ task.
a.    structured    c.    unstructured
b.    semistructured    d.    automated
3.    Research and development is an example of a(n) ____ task.
a.    structured    c.    unstructured
b.    semistructured    d.    automated
4.    ____ intelligence applications might be helpful in the future for handling qualitative decisions.
a.    Artificial    c.    Unstructured
b.    Automated    d.    Structured
5.    Mergers are a strategic management ____ component of an organization.
a.    ad hoc    c.    unstructured
b.    semistructured    d.    structured
6.    Resolving conflicts between two divisions is a tactical management ____ component of an organization.
a.    adhoc    c.    unstructured
b.    semistructured    d.    structured
7.    Plant location is an strategic management ____ component of an organization.
a.    adhoc    c.    unstructured
b.    semistructured    d.    structured
8.    A decision maker examines the organization’s environment for conditions that need decisions during the ____ phase of the decision-making process.
a.    intelligence    c.    choice
b.    design    d.    implementation
9.    The decision maker defines associations between alternatives and criteria during the ____ phase of the decision-making process.
a.    intelligence    c.    choice
b.    design    d.    implementation
10.    ____ are goals and objectives that decision makers establish in order to achieve certain performance.
a.    Governance rules    c.    Intangible milestones
b.    Mission statements    d.    Criteria
11.    In the design phase, defining associations between alternatives and ____ involves understanding how each alternative affects ____.
a.    the criteria    c.    costs
b.    the design    d.    decision making tasks
12.    A decision support system is particularly useful during the ____ phase of the decision-making process.
a.    intelligence    c.    choice
b.    design    d.    implementation
13.    A decision support system is a(n) ____ information system consisting of hardware, software, and models designed to assist decision makers in an organization.
a.    interactive    c.    artificial
b.    static    d.    virtual
14.    The ____ component of a DSS coordinates the other components.
a.    database    c.    model base
b.    DSS engine    d.    user interface
15.    Users access a DSS through the ____ component.
a.    database    c.    model base
b.    DSS engine    d.    user interface
16.    A managerial designer defines the ____ issues in designing and using a DSS.
a.    database    c.    management
b.    specification    d.    implementation
17.    The ____ is responsible for specifying data requirements, what models are needed, and how these models might be used.
a.    managerial designer    c.    model builder
b.    technical designer    d.    end user
18.    The ____ acts as a liaison when building a DSS.
a.    managerial designer    c.    model builder
b.    technical designer    d.    end users
19.    Peter G. Keen, a former MIT professor, conducted an interesting study on how organizations use DSSs and concluded that the decision to build a DSS seems to be based on ____.
a.    executive buy-in    c.    cost
b.    tangible benefits    d.    value
20.    Executive information systems are a branch of ____.
a.    DSSs    c.    real-time computing
b.    artificial intelligence    d.    CRM
21.    ____ plays an important role in the success of an EIS.
a.    Ease of use    c.    Real-time computing
b.    Artificial intelligence    d.    Relational databases
22.    A(n) ____ must provide access to both internal and external data.
a.    DSS    c.    MIS
b.    EIS    d.    GIS
23.    Microsoft SharePoint provides a ____.
a.    GIS    c.    digital dashboard
b.    model base    d.    waypoint system
24.    The ____ component of and EIS is responsible for managing data access.
a.    administrative    c.    tracking
b.    builder    d.    runtime
25.    Generally, managers perform six tasks for which an EIS is useful. One of these is ____.
a.    communicating via videoconferencing    c.    tracking inventory
b.    working in groups    d.    spotting trends
26.    The intervention aspect of a(n) ____ reduce communication barriers and introduce order and efficiency into situations that are inherently unsystematic and inefficient.
a.    EIS    c.    GSS
b.    DSS    d.    GIS
27.    Groupware commonly includes ____.
a.    database access    c.    a digital dashboard
b.    tools for travel arrangements    d.    geographic information
28.    ____ computer conferencing includes an audio link but has no video.
a.    Real-time    c.    Analog
b.    Video    d.    Desktop
29.    The costs of a GSS implementation are high because the system includes many ____.
a.    users    c.    communication lines
b.    features    d.    consultants
30.    A GIS uses ____ data.
a.    relative    c.    spatial and nonspatial
b.    buffered    d.    regional
31.    A GIS includes ____, which might show the location of an airport.
a.    points    c.    areas
b.    lines    d.    regions
32.    A GIS includes ____, which might show a river.
a.    points    c.    areas
b.    lines    d.    regions
33.    Digitized maps and ____ oriented databases are two major components of a GIS.
a.    relational    c.    hierarchical
b.    spatially    d.    linear
34.    Tracking changes in ridership on mass-transit systems is an example of a(n)____ GIS application.
a.    transportation and logistics    c.    urban planning
b.    government    d.    education planning
35.    When implementing a management support system, ____ to ensure that key decision makers are involved in designing the MSS.
a.    keep the look and feel consistent    c.    define objectives and benefits clearly
b.    hide complexity    d.    keep the lines of communication open
COMPLETION
1.    ____________________ decisions, or programmable tasks, can be automated because a well-defined standard operating procedure exists for these types of decisions
2.    ____________________ decisions aren’t quite as well-defined by standard operating procedures, but they include a structured aspect that benefits from information retrieval, analytical models, and information systems technology.
3.    ____________________ decisions are typically one-time decisions, with no standard operating procedure pertaining to them.
4.    Different types of information systems have been developed to support certain aspects and types of decisions. Collectively, these systems are called ____________________ systems.
5.    Herbert ____________________, winner of the 1978 Nobel Prize in economics, defines three phases in the decision-making process.
6.    In the ____________________ phase of the decision making process, the objective is to define criteria for the decision, generate alternatives for meeting the criteria, and define associations between the criteria and the alternatives.
7.    The ____________________ phase of the decision making process starts with analyzing each alternative and its relationship to the criteria to determine whether it’s feasible.
8.    During the ____________________ phase of the decision making process, ideas are converted into actions.
9.    In addition to a DSS engine, there are ____________________ major components of a DSS.
10.    The ____________________ component of a DSS includes mathematical and statistical models that, along with the database, enable a DSS to analyze information.
11.    The ____________________ focuses on how the DSS is implemented.
12.    Most EISs include a(n) ____________________, which integrates information from multiple sources and presents it in a unified, understandable format, often charts and graphs.
13.    A(n) ____________________ is designed to be used by more than one decision maker
14.    The goal of ____________________ is to assist groups in communicating, collaborating, and coordinating their activities.
15.    A(n) ____________________ information system captures, stores, processes, and displays geographic information or information in a geographic context.
SHORT ANSWER
1.    Provide examples of when semistructured decisions might be used.
2.    What is a management support system?
3.    Provide an example of the type of activities that take place during the intelligence phase of decision-making.
4.    Briefly describe the choice phase of the decision-making process.
5.    What are the requirements of a DSS?
6.    Describe the user interface component of a DSS.
7.    List the roles involved in designing, implementing, and using a DSS.
8.    What are the type of questions that a managerial designer must ask?
9.    List four benefits of a DSS.
10.    What is the function of a digital dashboard?
11.    Describe at least one reason for using an EIS.
12.    What tasks does a manager perform using an EIS?
13.    What are the advantages and disadvantages of Web-based GSS?
14.    What are the benefits and drawbacks of video teleconferencing?
15.    How can a GIS be used for marketing?
ESSAY
1.    What types of features do DSSs include to support decision making?
2.    Describe the model builder role.
3.    List some important characteristics of an EIS.
4.    What are the tasks that a GIS can perform?
5.    Describe the importance of keeping a consistent look and feel for a MSS.

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 103 Kilobytes

Information_system_13

TRUE/FALSE
1.    AI systems are only concerned with storing, retrieving, and working with data.
2.    Rules used in the AI field come from a diverse group of experts in areas such as mathematics, psychology, economics, anthropology, medicine, engineering, and physics.
3.    AI applications and technologies offer true human intelligence.
4.    American Airlines uses expert systems to purchase airplanes.
5.    Decision makers use “what-if” of analysis to monitor the effect of a change in one or more variables.
6.    Robotics are some of the most successful applications of AI.
7.    The robots used in factories are considered to be intelligent.
8.    Some robots have limited vision that’s useful for locating and picking up objects, as long as they’re isolated from other objects.
9.    Personal robots are currently used in nursing homes to care for the elderly.
10.    Developments in AI-related fields, such as expert systems and natural language processing, will affect the future development of the robotics industry.
11.    For expert systems to be successful, they must be applied to an activity that humans experts have not mastered.
12.    In an expert system configuration, experts add their knowledge directly to the knowledge base.
13.    In an expert system, the user interface provides user-friendly access to the expert system.
14.    In an expert system that provides financial investment advice for investors, the system might use backward chaining and ask several questions to determine which of five investment categories - oil-gas, bonds, common stocks, public utilities, and transportation - is more suitable for a prospective investor.
15.    A script for generating a purchase order might include events such as identifying the quantity to order, identifying the supplier and gathering data, generating the purchase order and sending it to the supplier, updating accounts payable, and informing the Receiving Department that an order has been placed.
16.    Arizona State University developed an expert system to teach math and evaluate students’ math skills.
17.    An expert system is not a good choice when a lot of human expertise is needed but one expert can’t investigate all the dimensions of a problem.

18.    An expert system is an excellent choice when well-structured numerical problems are involved.

19.    Problems involving the five senses such as taste or smell are not suitable for expert systems.

20.    An expert system duplicates and preserves the expertise of scarce experts and can incorporate the expertise of many experts.
21.    Intelligent agents demonstrate autonomy, which is the capability to work and cooperate with other agents to achieve a common objective.

22.    Pricescan (www.pricescan.com) is a commercial shopping agent.

23.    Personal agents can serve as search engines, site reminders, or personal surfing assistants.

24.    NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory has an agent that monitors inventory, planning, and scheduling equipment to keep costs down.
25.    Fuzzy logic is designed to help computers simulate certainty in common situations.
26.    Artificial neural networks can supply an explanation for a solution it finds.
27.    Every ANN has to be trained, and when organizational policies change, the network needs to be retrained so that it can mimic the new policies.
28.    Genetic algorithms are widely accepted.
29.    Genetic algorithms are already used with neural networks and fuzzy logic systems to solve scheduling, engineering design, and marketing problems.
30.    AI technologies can only be integrated into the model base component of a DSS.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.    AI technologies apply ____ to areas that require knowledge, perception, reasoning, understanding and cognitive abilities.
a.    strategies    c.    user requirements
b.    computers    d.    manual processes
2.    One of the requirements of a computer that can support AI is to ____.
a.    derive solutions to problems by examining all possible outcomes
b.    anticipate human needs and respond to them
c.    communicate non-verbally with humans
d.    be able to deal with new situations based on previous learning

3.    In the AI field, ____ engineers try to discover “rules of thumb” that enable computers to perform tasks usually handled by humans.
a.    computer    c.    systems
b.    data    d.    knowledge

4.    ____ is an organization working in the telecommunications field.
a.    SCI Systems    c.    BT Group
b.    Arco & Tenneco    d.    Spiegel

5.    An example of ____ analysis involves entering a customer account number and having the system display the customer’s current balance.
a.    cause-and-effect    c.    what-is
b.    lookup    d.    what-if
6.    ____ analysis is available in spreadsheet programs such as Microsoft Excel.
a.    Cause-and-effect    c.    What-is
b.    Lookup    d.    What-if

7.    ____ perform well at simple, repetitive tasks and can be used to free workers from tedious or hazardous jobs.
a.    Robots    c.    Natural language processors
b.    Neural networks    d.    Knowledge bases

8.    The cost of industrial robots can range from ____ and more.
a.    $10,000 to $30,000    c.    $100,000 to $250,000
b.    $50,000 to $100,000    d.    $500,000 to $1,000,000

9.    ____ is an example of a programming language for controlling robots.
a.    Extensible Markup Language (XML)    c.    C++
b.    Variable Assembly Language (VAL)    d.    Scalable Vector Graphics (SVG)

10.    ____ is one of the most successful and advanced personal robots on the markets today.
a.    ASIMO    c.    PR2
b.    FROB    d.    COGITO
11.    ____ robots have limited mobility, limited vision, and some speech capabilities.
a.    Personal    c.    AI
b.    Industrial    d.    Toy

12.    ____ systems have been one of the most successful AI-related technologies.
a.    MIS    c.    Agent
b.    NLP    d.    Expert

13.    The first expert system, called DENDRAL, was developed in the mid-____ at Stanford University.
a.    1940s    c.    1960s
b.    1950s    d.    1970s

14.    ____ is an example of an expert system that can be applied to various financial applications.
a.    DENDRAL    c.    COGITO
b.    ASIMO    d.    PortBlue

15.    ____ is an example of an expert system used for monitoring consumer sentiments in blogs, comment sections, and Web-based articles.
a.    DENDRAL    c.    COGITO
b.    ASIMO    d.    PortBlue
16.    ____ consists of common sense, rules of thumb, educated guesses, and instinctive judgements.
a.    Heuristics    c.    Nanomaterial
b.    Meta-knowledge    d.    Quantitative knowledge

17.    A(n) ____ works with the KBMS to ensure that the knowledge base is as up-to-date as possible.
a.    explanation facility    c.    heuristic
b.    knowledge acquisition facility    d.    meta-knowledge system

18.    ____ consists of rules related to a problem or discipline.
a.    Meta-knowledge    c.    Factual knowledge
b.    Heuristic knowledge    d.    Expert knowledge

19.    ____ enables an expert system to learn from experience and examine and extract relevant facts to determine the path to a solution.
a.    Meta-knowledge    c.    Factual knowledge
b.    Heuristic knowledge    d.    Expert knowledge

20.    The ____ component of an expert system is important because it helps give users confidence in the system’s results.
a.    explanation facility    c.    heuristic
b.    knowledge acquisition facility    d.    meta-knowledge system
21.    In an expert system, a(n) ____ engine is similar to the model base component of a decision support system.
a.    inference    c.    factual
b.    knowledge    d.    explanation

22.    In forward chaining, the ____ condition is evaluated first.
a.    If    c.    What
b.    Then    d.    Else
23.    In backward chaining, the expert system starts with the ____ first.
a.    “if”    c.    “else”
b.    goal    d.    condition
24.    If fewer than ____ rules are included, an expert system is not a good choice.
a.    10    c.    50
b.    30    d.    100
25.    Some banks use a(n) ____ system to qualify customers for loans, using parameters from past customers stored in a database.
a.    CBR    c.    NLP
b.    ANN    d.    DSS
26.    Intelligent agents are also called ____.
a.    moles    c.    bots
b.    rats    d.    rootkits
27.    Intelligent agents demonstrate ____, the capability to select problems or situations that need attention and act on them.
a.    adaptability    c.    mobility
b.    collaborative behavior    d.    reactivity
28.    A ____ catalog displays product descriptions based on customers’ previous experiences and preferences.
a.    natural    c.    virtual
b.    logical    d.    physical
29.    Shopping and ____ agents help users navigate through the vast resources available on the Web.
a.    open-source    c.    public
b.    lookup    d.    information
30.    A(n) ____ can be used to automatically fill out Web forms.
a.    natural language processor    c.    information agent
b.    shopping agent    d.    personal agent
31.    Data mining agents work with a ____.
a.    filter    c.    knowledge base
b.    catalog    d.    data warehouse

32.    ____ agents usually track and report on computer equipment and network systems to predict when a system crash or failure might occur.
a.    Fuzzy logic    c.    Shopping and information
b.    Monitoring and surveillance    d.    Data mining

33.    TVs that adjust screen color and texture for each frame and stabilize the volume based on the viewer’s location in the room are demonstrating ____.
a.    fuzzy logic    c.    personal agent qualities
b.    artificial neural capabilities    d.    surveillance

34.    ____ was developed so that users could communicate with computers in their own language.
a.    NLP    c.    Virtual catalog technology
b.    ANN    d.    Personal agent technology

35.    The size and complexity of the human language has made developing ____ systems difficult.
a.    NLP    c.    AI
b.    ANN    d.    personal agent

COMPLETION
1.    ____________________ technologies are concerned with generating and displaying knowledge and facts.
2.    The “what-____________________” analysis is commonly used in transaction processing systems and management information systems.
3.    The “what-____________________” analysis is used in decision support systems.
4.    One of the most advanced and most popular robots is Honda’s ____________________.
5.    A(n) ____________________ is a software package with manual or automated methods for acquiring and incorporating new rules and facts so that the expert system is capable of growth.
6.    A knowledge ____________________ is similar to a database, but in addition to storing facts and figures, it keeps track of rules and explanations associated with facts.
7.    A(n) ____________________ facility performs tasks similar to what a human expert does by explaining to end users how recommendations are derived.
8.    In ____________________, a series of “If-Then-Else” condition pairs are performed.
9.    ____________________ is a problem-solving technique that matches a new case (problem) with a previously solved case and its solution stored in a database.
10.    ____________________ allows a smooth, gradual transition between human and computer vocabularies and deals with variations in linguistic terms by using a degree of membership.
11.    ____________________ are networks that learn and are capable of performing tasks that are difficult with conventional computers.
12.    ____________________ are used mostly in techniques to find solutions to optimization and search problems.
13.    A(n) ____________________ system provides a question-and-answer setting that’s more natural and easier for people to use than a GUI.
14.    In an NLP system, ____________________ involves accepting human language as input, carrying out the corresponding command, and generating the necessary output.
15.    In an NLP system, ____________________ involves using the computer to read large amounts of text and understand the information well enough to summarize important points and store information so that the system can respond to inquiries about the content.
SHORT ANSWER
1.    What technologies are used in AI?
2.    In addition to what-is and what-if questions, what other types of questions do decision makers need to ask?
3.    List some examples of personal robots.
4.    How do decision support systems generate information?
5.    Provide an example of the type of information that might be stored in a financial expert system’s knowledge base.
6.    What is factual knowledge? Provide an example.
7.    What is meta-knowledge? Provide an example.
8.    What is a KBMS?
9.    How does the U.S. government make use of expert systems?
10.    How does Hewlett-Packard use CBR?
11.    Describe an application of intelligent agents that is in use today.
12.    What tasks can an e-mail personal agent perform?
13.    Describe how fuzzy logic works. Provide an example to illustrate.
.
14.    How does an ANN create a model? Provide an example.
15.    List and briefly describe the techniques used in a GA system.
ESSAY
1.    Robots have some unique advantages in the workplace compared with humans. What are they?
2.    What are the conditions under which an expert system should be used?
3.    What are the conditions under which an expert system should not be used?
experts.
4.    What is a data-mining agent? Provide an example of the use for such an agent.
5.    Describe examples for the uses of fuzzy logic.

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 24 Kilobytes

Information_system_2_1

6. A

1.	Computers have gone through drastic changes in a short time.
2.	Computers are excellent at correcting incorrect data that is sent to programs.
3.	Both the ALU and control unit are part of the BIOS.
4.	A bus may be internal or external.
5.	A computer with a 32-bit processor can perform calculations with larger numbers and be more efficient with smaller numbers.

 

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 23 Kilobytes

Information_system_2_2

6. A serial port is a communication interface through which information is transferred one bit at a time.

7. Fourth-generation computers operated on integrated circuits (ICs), which enabled computers to be even smaller, faster, more reliable, and more sophisticated.

8. ENIAC is an example of a first-generation computer.

9. Fourth-generation computers include parallel-processing.

10. Unlike humans, computers don’t make mistakes.

 

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 23 Kilobytes

Information_system_2_3

11. A petabyte is 230 bytes.

12. Computers and communication systems use data codes to represent and transfer data between computers and network systems.

13. The split keyboard has been developed for better ergonomics.

14. Light pens are considered to be an output device.

15. Trackballs are ideal for notebook computers because they occupy less space than a mouse.

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 23 Kilobytes

Information_system_2_4

16. Positioning with a trackball is sometimes less precise than with a mouse.

17. The United States Postal Service uses OMR to sort mail.

18. Inkjet printers produce characters by projecting electrically charged droplets of ink onto paper that create an image.

19. Main memory stores data and information and is usually nonvolatile.

20. Random access memory can be read from and written to.

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 24 Kilobytes

Information_system_2_5

21. A magnetic disk is a type of secondary memory.

22. A major drawback with a write once, read many (WORM) disc is that it is prone to malware attacks.

23. Hard disks come in a variety of sizes and can be internal or external.

24. Flash memory is used mostly in memory cards and USB flash drives.

25. A SAN is a dedicated high-speed network consisting of both hardware and software used to connect and manage shared storage devices such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical storage devices.

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 92 Kilobytes

Information_system_2_6

26. NAS is composed of arrays such that if one disk in the array fails, data is not lost.

27. NAS is popular for Web servers and e-mail servers because it lowers management costs and helps make these servers more fault tolerant.

28. With NAS, as the number of users increases, its performance increases.

29. A spreadsheet is a table of rows and columns, and spreadsheet software is capable of performing numerous tasks with the information in a spreadsheet.

30. Sometimes, 4GLs are called procedural languages.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The portion of the computer responsible for adding numbers is the ____.

a.

ALU

c.

logic unit

b.

control unit

d.

bus

2. A(n) ____ is the link between devices connected to the computer.

a.

ALU

c.

logic unit

b.

control unit

d.

bus

3. A(n) ____ is a peripheral device for recording, storing, and retrieving information.

a.

bus

c.

ALU

b.

disk drive

d.

motherboard

4. The BIOS is part of the ____.

a.

CPU

c.

motherboard

b.

ALU

d.

bus

5. Transistors were the major technology for the ____ generation of hardware.

a.

first

c.

third

b.

second

d.

fourth

6. IBM System z10 is an example of a ____ generation computer.

a.

second

c.

fourth

b.

third

d.

fifth

7. High-level languages represent the ____ generation of computer languages.

a.

first

c.

third

b.

second

d.

fourth

8. Computer speed might be measured in ____ or 1/1,000,000,000,000 of a second.

a.

milliseconds

c.

nanoseconds

b.

microseconds

d.

picoseconds

9. ____ means saving data in computer memory and retrieval is accessing data from memory.

a.

Encapsulation

c.

Assembling

b.

Replication

d.

Storage

10. A ____ is the size of a character.

a.

nibble

c.

byte

b.

bit

d.

word

11. In a(n) ____ file, each alphabetic, numeric, or special character is represented with a 7-bit binary number.

a.

EBCDIC

c.

ASCII

b.

Unicode

d.

extended ASCII

12. ASCII defines up to ____ characters.

a.

8

c.

258

b.

128

d.

1024

13. Input devices send data and information to a(n) ____.

a.

CPU case

c.

ALU

b.

vacuum tube

d.

computer

14. The most widely used input device is the ____.

a.

keyboard

c.

touch screen

b.

mouse

d.

MICR

15. A(n) ____ is an example of a soft copy output.

a.

liquid crystal display

c.

laser printer

b.

inkjet printer

d.

voice synthesis device

16. ____ memory, which is nonvolatile, holds data when the computer is off or during the course of a program’s operation.

a.

Raw

c.

Secondary

b.

Open

d.

Replicated

17. The Clipboard’s contents are stored on ____.

a.

ROM

c.

PROM

b.

RAM

d.

EPROM

18. A(n) ____ is a type of memory that must be accessed sequentially.

a.

magnetic disk

c.

optical disk

b.

magnetic tape

d.

RAID

19. Optical discs use ____ beams to access and store data.

a.

magnetic

c.

optical

b.

laser

d.

elliptical

20. CD-ROMs and DVDs are examples of ____ disks.

a.

magnetic

c.

optical

b.

tape

d.

flash

21. Which of the following has the highest storage capacity?

a.

memory stick

c.

CD-ROM

b.

hard disk

d.

DVD-ROM

22. The term RAID stands for ____.

a.

random access for independent disks

b.

redundant access for independent devices

c.

random array of independent drives

d.

redundant array of independent disks

23. Typically, ____ are used only in large enterprises because of their cost and installation complexity.

a.

SANs

c.

CD-ROMs

b.

NASs

d.

hard disks

24. A ____ is a computer and all software for managing network resources and offering services to a network.

a.

SAN

c.

NAS

b.

server

d.

RAID

25. ____ servers are configured to store and manage vast amounts of data for access from users’ computers.

a.

Application

c.

Database

b.

Disk

d.

Web

26. The control programs managing computer hardware and software use the ____ function to control and prioritize tasks performed by the CPU.

a.

application management

c.

data management

b.

resource allocation

d.

job management

27. The supervisor program of an OS is called the ____.

a.

kernel

c.

job manager

b.

resource allocater

d.

data manager

28. ____ OSs allow several users to use computer resources simultaneously.

a.

Kernel

c.

Hierarchical

b.

Web-driven

d.

Time-shared

29. Microsoft Word is an example of ____ software.

a.

spreadsheet

c.

graphics

b.

presentation

d.

word processing

30. Using ____ software, you can perform “what if” analysis on data.

a.

spreadsheet

c.

word processing

b.

graphics

d.

kernel

31. IBM Freelance is an example of ____ software.

a.

spreadsheet

c.

graphics

b.

presentation

d.

word processing

32. ____ software, which is more powerful than spreadsheet software, is capable of performing many types analysis on large amounts of data.

a.

Financial planning

c.

Graphics

b.

Presentation

d.

Word processing

33. The first generation of computer languages consists of a series of ____ representing data or instructions.

a.

macros

c.

0s

b.

1s

d.

0s and 1s

34. Java and C++ are ____ computer languages.

a.

assembly

c.

fourth generation

b.

high-level

d.

fifth generation

35. ____ languages are the easiest computer languages to use.

a.

Assembly

c.

Fourth-generation

b.

First-generation

d.

Machine

COMPLETION

1. The ____________________ is the heart of a computer.

2. The ____________________ tells the computer what to do, such as instructing the computer which device to read or send data to.

3. In computers, data is stored in ____________________.

4. A(n) ____________________ pen is easy to use, inexpensive, and accurate and is particularly useful for engineers and graphics designers because they work well on modifications to technical drawings.

5. The most common type of main memory is semiconductor memory chips made of ____________________.

6. ____________________ read-only memory is similar to PROM, but its contents can be erased and reprogrammed.

7. A(n) ____________________ disk made of mylar or metal is used for random-access processing.

8. ____________________ discs use laser beams to access and store data.

9. A SAN offers only storage; a(n) ____________________ system offers both storage and file services.

10. ____________________ computers are usually compatible with the IBM System/360 line introduced in 1965.

11. ____________________ servers store Web pages for access over the Internet.

12. The ____________________ function of an operating system manages computer resources, such as storage and memory.

13. Microsoft PowerPoint is the most commonly used ____________________ software.

14. ____________________ software is used for drafting and design and has replaced traditional tools, such as T-squares, triangles, paper, and pencils.

15. Imagine that you could ask your computer, “What product generated the most sales last year?” This is an example of ____________________ processing.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What are some possible future effects of the everyday use in computers?

2. Provide a high-level description of how to write a computer program.

3. What is the difference between a single processor and multiprocessor system?

4. What is a motherboard?

5. How is computer speed measured?

6. What is a binary system?

7. What are touch screens?

8. What are the most common output devices for soft copy?

9. What are the main types of secondary memory?

10. Why are memory sticks popular?

11. Explain how RAID provides fault tolerance and improved performance.

12. What is a fax server?

13. What is a print server?

14. Describe desktop publishing software.

15. What is assembly language?

ESSAY

1. Provide a definition for a computer and explain the purpose of a computer program.

2. Describe the use of gallium arsenide as a replacement for silicone.

3. What is the most common type of main memory? Describe the purpose of cache RAM.

4. Describe the data management function of an operating system.

5. What are fifth-generation languages? Describe their features and provide examples of 5GLs.

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 97 Kilobytes

Information_system_3

TRUE/FALSE
1.    Although a database can consist of only a single file, it is usually a group of files.
2.    A database is a critical component of information systems because any type of analysis that’s done is based on data available in the database.
3.    The best feature of flat file organization is the lack of data redundancy.
4.    In a flat file system, data might not be updated in all files consistently.
5.    One advantage a database has over a flat file system is that more information can be generated from the same data.
6.    The database component of an information system accesses only internal data.
7.    The sequential file structure access method is effective when a large number of records are processed less frequently, perhaps on a quarterly or yearly basis.
8.    The indexed sequential access method (ISAM) method of access is slow and becomes increasingly useful as the number of records becomes larger.
9.    With the indexed sequential access method (ISAM) method of access, records cannot be accessed randomly.
10.    An index structure has two parts: the indexed value and a pointer to the primary key for the record matching the indexed value.
11.    There is only one logical view of the data in a database.
12.    The operations component of a data model describes methods, calculations, and so forth that can be performed on data, such as updating and querying data.
13.    In a hierarchical data model, nodes with the same parents are called twins or siblings.
14.    The network model is similar to the hierarchical model because records are organized the same way.
15.    The data dictionary typically contains only the field name for each field.
16.    In practice, normalization usually involves the stages 1NF through 5NF.
17.    A join operation combines two tables based on a common field.
18.    Any changes to a database’s structure, such as adding fields, deleting fields, changing a field’s size, and changing the data type stored in a field, are made with the data manipulation component.
19.    In SQL, after FROM, you list the files or tables the data is retrieved from.
20.    The OR operator means only one of the conditions must be met.
21.    The application generation component is used to design elements of an application using a database, such as data entry screens.
22.    The term CRUD stands for create, revise, undo and define.
23.    Database design and management is sometimes handled by a department rather than an individual.
24.    Advances in artificial intelligence and natural language processing will have an impact on database design and use.
25.    In well-designed data-driven Web sites, changes are made to the HTML code.
26.    An e-commerce site that needs frequent updates would benefit from the use of a client/server database.
27.    Security issues are more challenging in a distributed database.
28.    In contrast to the query languages used to interact with a relational database, interaction with an object-oriented database takes places via methods.
29.    Designing and implementing a data warehouse is a complex task.
30.    Metadata is extraneous data generated from an SQL join command.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.    A database is a collection of related ____ that can be stored in a central location or in multiple locations.
a.    arrays    c.    indices
b.    keys    d.    data
2.    A ____ is a group of related fields in a database.
a.    model    c.    record
b.    key    d.    file
3.    The structure and organization of data in a database is called the data ____.
a.    mart    c.    warehouse
b.    dictionary    d.    hierarchy
4.    Microsoft ____ can be used to create and modify a database.
a.    Access    c.    Excel
b.    Word    d.    PowerPoint
5.    With the ____, records can be accessed sequentially or randomly, depending on the number being accessed.
a.    sequential file structure    c.    random access structure
b.    indexed sequential access method    d.    hypercube structure
6.    With indexed sequential access, an index is more useful when the number of records is ____.
a.    undefined    c.    small
b.    zero    d.    large
7.    How data is stored on and retrieved from a hard disk is the ____ view.
a.    physical    c.    hard copy
b.    logical    d.    storage
8.    Within a data model, the ____ describes how data is organized and the relationship among records.
a.    data structure    c.    set of integrity rules
b.    file structure    d.    primary key
9.    The ____ in a database model defines the boundaries of a database, such as maximum and minimum values allowed for a field.
a.    data structure    c.    set of integrity rules
b.    set of operation rules    d.    hierarchical model
10.    The most common data model is the ____ model.
a.    hierarchical    c.    relational
b.    network    d.    object-oriented
11.    In the ____ model, each record can have multiple parents and multiple children.
a.    network    c.    integrity
b.    hierarchical    d.    relational
12.    To begin designing a relational database, you must define the ____ structure by defining each table and the fields in it.
a.    physical    c.    security
b.    logical    d.    management
13.    A data ____ stores definitions, such as data types for fields, default values, and validation rules for data in each field.
a.    dictionary    c.    normalization
b.    primary key    d.    type
14.    In a relational model, when a primary key for one table appears in another table, it is called a ____ key.
a.    secondary    c.    normal
b.    foreign    d.    relational
15.    To improve database efficiency, a process called ____ is used.
a.    joining    c.    normalization
b.    fragmentation    d.    encapsulation
16.    A ____ operation searches data in a table and retrieves records based on certain criteria.
a.    project    c.    find
b.    join    d.    select
17.    A ____ operation pares down a table by eliminating columns (fields) according to certain criteria.
a.    project    c.    find
b.    join    d.    select
18.    A database ____, the heart of DBMS software, is responsible for data storage, manipulation, and retrieval.
a.    application    c.    system
b.    definition    d.    engine
19.    With ____, you request data from a database by constructing a statement made up of query forms.
a.    the database engine    c.    query by example
b.    select    d.    structured query language
20.    The ____ operator searches for records that don’t meet the condition.
a.    NOT    c.    OR
b.    AND    d.    MIS
21.    Distributing data among multiple sites minimizes the effects of computer ____.
a.    encapsulation    c.    fragmentation
b.    replication    d.    failures
22.    Accessing one central database server could increase ____ for remote users.
a.    error rates    c.    productivity
b.    communication costs    d.    processing speed
23.    The ____ approach to setting up a distributed database addresses how tables are divided among multiple locations.
a.    data-driven    c.    fragmentation
b.    allocation    d.    replication
24.    The ____ approach to setting up a distributed database combines fragmentation and replication.
a.    data-driven    c.    join
b.    allocation    d.    replication
25.    A(n) ____ database has the ability to represent more complex data relationships than a relational database.
a.    data-driven    c.    client/server
b.    object-oriented    d.    distributed
26.    Grouping objects along with their attributes and methods into a class is called ____.
a.    replication    c.    encapsulation
b.    inheritance    d.    distributed processing
27.    A ____ is a collection of data from a variety of sources used to support decision-making applications and generate business intelligence.
a.    validation rule    c.    data mine
b.    data mart    d.    data warehouse
28.    Extraction, transformation, and loading (ETL) refers to the ____ used in a data warehouse.
a.    paths    c.    processes
b.    tasks    d.    access points
29.    In a data warehouse, ____ means collecting data from a variety of sources and converting it into a format that can be used in transformation processing.
a.    extraction    c.    loading
b.    translation    d.    aggregation
30.    ____ data is information in its original form.
a.    Summary    c.    Transformed
b.    Raw    d.    Open
31.    ____ data gives users subtotals of various categories.
a.    Summary    c.    Transformed
b.    Raw    d.    Sorted
32.    ____ usually utilize internal data and respond in real time.
a.    OLAP    c.    SQL
b.    OLTP    d.    QBE
33.    ____ uses multiple sources of information and provides multidimensional analysis.
a.    OLAP    c.    SQL
b.    OLTP    d.    QBE
34.    ____ tools can be used to examine point-of-sale data to generate reports on customers’ purchase history.
a.    Data-mining    c.    Distributed
b.    Relational    d.    ETL
35.    Data marts usually have more limited ____ than data warehouses.
a.    content    c.    value
b.    integrity    d.    scope
COMPLETION
1.    In a database, a(n) ____________________ is a group of related records.
2.    Software for creating, storing, maintaining, and accessing database files is called a(n) ____________________.
3.    In a(n) ____________________ access file structure, records in files are organized and processed in numerical order.
4.    In a(n) ____________________ access file structure, records can be accessed in any order, regardless of their physical location in storage media.
5.    The ____________________ view of a database involves how information appears to users and how it can be organized and retrieved.
6.    In a(n) ____________________ model, the relationships between records form a treelike structure.
7.    In a relational database, every record must be uniquely identified by a(n) ____________________ key.
8.    ____________________ is a standard fourth-generation query language used by many DBMS packages, such as Oracle 11g and Microsoft SQL Server.
9.    In large organizations, database design and management is handled by the database ____________________.
10.    With the ____________________ distributed database approach, each site stores a copy of data of the organization’s database.
11.    An object consists of ____________________ (characteristics describing an entity) and methods (operations or calculations) that can be performed on the object’s data.
12.    Object-oriented databases can use ____________________, which means new objects can be created faster and more easily by entering new data in attributes.
13.    Data warehouses store multidimensional data, so they’re sometimes called “____________________.”
14.    ____________________ processing is done to make sure data meets the data warehouse’s needs.
15.    A(n) ____________________ is usually a smaller version of a data warehouse, used by a single department or function.
SHORT ANSWER
1.    What type of files might a college database have?
2.    Briefly describe “flat files”?
3.    What are some sources of external data?
4.    What is a random access file structure?
.
5.    What is the physical view of a database?
6.    What is a relational model?
7.    What tasks are performed when normalizing a database in the 1NF stage?
8.    Describe how data stored in a relational model is retrieved from tables.
9.    What is the data definition component of a DBMS?
10.    What is the basic format for a SQL query?
11.    What is a data-driven Web site?
.
12.    What is a distributed database?
13.    What is a client/server database?
14.    Describe the loading process of ETL.
15.    What type of reports does a data warehouse generate?
ESSAY
1.    What are the main definitions collected for each field in a data dictionary?
2.    List the responsibilities of a DBA.
3.    Describe the features and benefits of an object-oriented database.
4.    List and describe the features of a data warehouse as contrasted with a database.
5.    What are the advantages of a data mart over a data warehouse?

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 74 Kilobytes

Information_system_4

TRUE/FALSE
1.    Sometimes cookies are useful or innocuous.
2.    Cookies cannot provide information about the user’s location and computer equipment.
3.    Some spyware changes computer settings, resulting in slow Internet connections.
4.    Web browser ad-blocking features are the only defense against adware.
5.    Keyloggers usually direct e-mail recipients to false Web sites that look like the real thing for the purpose of capturing private information.
6.    Software keyloggers can be blocked using antivirus software.
7.    Social networking sites, such as Facebook and MySpace, have been used for committing computer crimes.
8.    Virus hoaxes are false statements or information intentionally spread through the Internet and are presented in such a way that the readers believe that they are true.
9.    Some “information paranoia” is valid because information about almost every aspect of people’s lives is now stored on various databases.
10.    The U.S. government began linking large databases to find information in 1991.
11.    Having a clear, specific policy can help prevent legal actions users might take against an organization, as in cases of termination.
12.    Spammers rely on getting an overwhelming response from their e-mails.
13.    In 2009, there were 1.4 billion e-mail users worldwide.
14.    Information collected from the Internet can be relied on to be accurate.
15.    A supervisor fires a programmer who has intentionally spread viruses to the organization’s network. The supervisor’s behavior is both ethical and legal.
16.    If a search includes keywords such as “toys,” “pets,” “boys,” and “girls,” for example, the results could list sites linking to pornography.
17.    Copyright laws do not cover online material.
18.    The 1980 revisions to the Copyright Act of 1976 include computer programs.
19.    Information technology has eliminated more types of jobs than it has created.
20.    Studies have shown that VDTs cause many health problems.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.    Amazon.com uses ____ to provided customized book recommendations based on past purchases.
a.    cookies    c.    spyware
b.    spam    d.    adware
2.    CounterSpy is a program that protects against ____.
a.    phishing    c.    spoofing
b.    sniffing    d.    spyware
3.    ____ is capturing and recording network traffic.
a.    Phishing    c.    Spoofing
b.    Sniffing    d.    Spyware
4.    Hackers often use phishing to ____ information.
a.    delete    c.    intercept
b.    modify    d.    extort
5.    ____ attacks inundate a Web site or network with e-mails and other network traffic so that it becomes overloaded and can’t handle legitimate traffic.
a.    Spam    c.    Identity theft
b.    Denial-of-service    d.    Virus hoax
6.    The most common way to index and link databases is using ____.
a.    names    c.    Social Security numbers
b.    addresses    d.    driver’s license numbers
7.    A(n) ____ is a set of rules specifying legal and ethical use of a system and activities and the consequences of noncompliance.
a.    acceptable use policy    c.    keylogger
b.    spam filter    d.    log file
8.    Spamming has created ____ concerns, because the e-mails often contain explicit language or nudity.
a.    privacy    c.    sniffing
b.    fraud    d.    decency
9.    In 2009, spam accounted for ____% of e-mails.
a.    37    c.    81
b.    52    d.    93
10.    ____ are generated by Web server software, record a user’s actions on a Web site.
a.    Viruses    c.    Logins
b.    Spam    d.    Log files
11.    You make two copies of a software package you just bought and sell one to a friend. This action is ____.
a.    illegal and unethical    c.    illegal but ethical
b.    legal but unethical    d.    legal and ethical
12.    Many experts believe management can reduce employee’s unethical behavior by developing and enforcing a ____.
a.    trademark    c.    code of ethics
b.    human behavior policy    d.    company mission statements
13.    Generally, ____ laws protect tangible material, such as books and drawings.
a.    copyright    c.    trademark
b.    patent    d.    logo
14.    The ____ means you can use copyrighted material for certain purposes, such as quoting passages of a book in literary reviews.
a.    Copyright Act of 1994    c.    Digital Millennium Act
b.    Fair Use Doctrine    d.    ACM Code of Ethics
15.    A ____ protects new processes.
a.    copyright    c.    trademark
b.    Fair Use Doctrine    d.    patent
16.    ____ is registering, selling, or using a domain name to profit from someone else’s trademark.
a.    The digital divide    c.    Cybersquatting
b.    The Unfair Use Doctrine    d.    Cyberbullying
17.    Information technology and the Internet has, in essence, resulted in two societal groups: the information rich and the information poor. This is called the ____.
a.    cyber divide    c.    digital act
b.    cyber squat    d.    digital divide
18.    Job ____ occurs when skilled labor is eliminated by high technology or when a job is downgraded from a skilled to a semiskilled or unskilled position.
a.    deskilling    c.    upskilling
b.    reskilling    d.    divide
19.    Dell, Microsoft, and Unisys Corporation created a partnership to design a voting system for several U.S. states. This is an example of ____.
a.    cybersquatting    c.    a virtual organization
b.    the digital divide    d.    telecommuting
20.    ____ is collecting data from Web sites, usually for competitive intelligence.
a.    Data harvesting    c.    phishing
b.    Data warehousing    d.    Web harvesting
COMPLETION
1.    ____________________ are small text files with a unique ID tag that are embedded in a Web browser and saved on the user’s hard drive.
2.    A cookie ____________________ can eliminate existing cookies and prevent additional cookies from being saved on a users hard drive.
3.    Spyware is ____________________ that gathers information about users while they browse the Web.
4.    ____________________ is sending fraudulent e-mails that seem to come from legitimate sources, such as a bank or university.
5.    ____________________ monitor and record keystrokes and can be software or hardware devices.
6.    Spoofing is an attempt to gain access to a(n) ____________________ by posing as an authorized user.
7.    Computer ____________________ is the unauthorized use of computer data for personal gain.
8.    ____________________ is a computer crime that involves destroying or disrupting computer services.
9.    Unsolicited e-mail sent for advertising purposes is called ____________________.
10.    ____________________ is a legal umbrella covering protections that involve copyrights, trademarks, trade secrets, and patents for “creation of the mind” developed by people or businesses.
11.    A(n) ____________________ protects product names and identifying marks.
12.    Economic “____________________” can occur when companies installing coaxial and fiber-optic cables for Internet connections focus on higher-income communities, where more residents are expected to use the Internet.
13.    With ____________________ technology, a worker can send and receive data to and from the main office.
14.    ____________________ organizations are networks of independent companies, suppliers, customers, and manufacturers connected via information technologies so that they can share skills and costs and have access to each other’s markets.
15.    Green computing is computing that promotes a sustainable environment and consumes the least amount of ____________________.
SHORT ANSWER
1.    What are “hackers” and what is their motivation?
2.    Describe the issue with laws that regulate collecting and using information.
3.    What is being done to lessen consumers’ reluctance to make online shopping purchases?
4.    Some Web sites require you to enter your name, address, and employment information before you’re allowed to use the site. What type of privacy issues does this raise?
5.    List at least three questions or statements a knowledge worker should ask to avoid ethical issues before making a decision.
6.    Provide examples of when public information can be censored.
7.    Define the two categories of intellectual property.
8.    What is the length of copyright and patents in the United States?
9.    Describe examples of steps being taken to offset the digital divide.
10.    What is an example of job deskilling?
11.    List at least three advantages of virtual organizations.
.
12.    What are some of the causes of health issues related to information technology?
13.    Describe ways to solve health problems related to computer equipment.
14.    Define and describe green computing.
15.    List two criteria for a successful green computing strategy.
ESSAY
1.    What three important concepts help to deal with the legal and privacy issues of the Internet?
2.    Describe the privacy concern posed by ease of access to e-mail.
3.    What are some of the moral guidelines of the ACM’s code of ethics? List at least three.
4.    What are the three advantages provided by patents?
5.    With information technologies, one skilled worker might be capable doing the job of several workers. Provide some examples of this phenomenon.

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 99 Kilobytes

Information_system_5

TRUE/FALSE
1.    Common hacker tools are not available freely on the Web.
2.    The information an organization needs to protect can take many forms.
3.    In financial transactions, availability is probably the important aspect of a security system.
4.    Part of ensuring integrity is identifying authorized users and granting them access privileges.
5.    Level 2 security covers the corporate network.
6.    If a drive in the RAID system fails, data stored on it can be reconstructed from data stored on the remaining drives.
7.    All threats can be controlled.
8.    It is possible to control and eliminate most natural disasters.
9.    The most well-known computer and network threat are viruses.
10.    Viruses can only be transmitted through direct computer-to-computer contact.
11.    In some ways, hoaxes can cause as much damage as real viruses.
12.    Installing and updating an antivirus program is the best measure against viruses.
13.    Disgruntled programmers trying to get even with an organization have created many Trojan programs.
14.    A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack involves hundreds or thousands of computers working together to bombard a Web site with thousands of requests for information in a short period.
15.    Social engineering techniques are normally easily detected because they involve threatening employees with physical violence.
16.    There are several biometric techniques that examine the eye and hand.
17.    Biometric techniques are extremely effective and thus the most appropriate choice for any organization.
18.    The three main nonbiometric security measures are callback modems, firewalls, and intrusion detection systems.
19.    Application-filtering firewalls are less expensive than packet-filtering firewalls.
20.    It is prohibitively expensive to build a customized firewall.
21.    An intrusion detection system cannot prevent DoS attacks.
22.    Corner bolts are secured to a computer at the power outlet.
23.    Access controls are designed to protect systems from unauthorized access in order to preserve data integrity.
24.    A good rule is that passwords should be at least eight characters.
25.    2222ABCD is an example of a strong password.
26.    One of the first public key algorithms, RSA, is still widely used today.
27.    The main advantage of asymmetric encryption is that is it fast and requires little processing power.
28.    In today’s organizations, employees are well versed in security awareness and security measures so there is little need for training in these areas.
29.    A colocation facility is rented from a third party and usually contains telecommunication equipment.
30.    Backup facilities should never be shared in an attempt to reduce costs.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.    A ____ is an inexperienced, usually young hacker.
a.    script kiddie    c.    white hat
b.    black hat    d.    wizard
2.    An attack by a ____ hacker might not be an actual threat to an organization’s security system.
a.    script kiddie    c.    white hat
b.    black hat    d.    wizard
3.    ____ are collectively referred to as the “CIA triangle.”
a.    Computer, intelligence, and availability
b.    Confidentiality, intelligence, and access
c.    Computer, integrity and access
d.    Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
4.    ____ refers to the accuracy of information resources within an organization.
a.    Security    c.    Integrity
b.    Confidentiality    d.    Availability
5.    The McCumber cube defines ____ characteristics of information security.
a.    three    c.    nine
b.    six    d.    twelve
6.    Level 1 security involves ____.
a.    back-end systems    c.    physical security
b.    corporate networks    d.    front-end servers
7.    A backup power unit is also called a(n) ____.
a.    UPS    c.    level 1 protective device
b.    McCumber device    d.    RAID
8.    Intentional threats include ____.
a.    floods    c.    attacks by disgruntled employees
b.    user’s accidental deletion of data    d.    power outages
9.    According to Symantec Corporation, in 2008 the number of computer viruses in existence exceeded one ____.
a.    hundred thousand    c.    million
b.    half million    d.    trillion
10.    ____ report nonexistent viruses and may cause panic.
a.    Worms    c.    Virus hoaxes
b.    Trojan programs    d.    Backdoors
11.    A ____ travels from computer to computer, in a network, but it doesn’t usually erase data.
a.    Trojan program    c.    virus
b.    worm    d.    backdoor
12.    A logic bomb is a type of ____.
a.    Trojan program    c.    virus
b.    worm    d.    backdoor
13.    A ____ is built-in to a system by its designer.
a.    logic bomb    c.    virus
b.    worm    d.    backdoor
14.    A Trojan program contains code intended to disrupt a computer, network, or Web site, and it is usually hidden in a(n) ____ program.
a.    application    c.    rarely used
b.    operating system    d.    popular
15.    A ____ attack floods a network or server with service requests to prevent legitimate users’ access to the system.
a.    logic bomb    c.    social engineering
b.    denial-of-service    d.    worm
16.    A ____ attack typically targets Internet servers.
a.    logic bomb    c.    social engineering
b.    denial-of-service    d.    worm
17.    Any system connected to the Internet running ____ is subject to a denial of service attack.
a.    TLS    c.    UDP
b.    SSL    d.    TCP
18.    A ____ attack might make use of Google Maps.
a.    logic bomb    c.    social engineering
b.    denial-of-service    d.    worm
19.    ____ security measures use a physiological element to enhance security measures.
a.    Alternative    c.    Biofeedback
b.    Social engineering    d.    Biometric
20.    Which of the following is often used by law enforcement agencies?
a.    facial recognition    c.    signature analysis
b.    palm prints    d.    vein analysis
21.    A ____ is used to verify whether a user’s access is valid by logging the user off (after he or she attempts to connect to the network) and then calling the user back at a predetermined number.
a.    firewall    c.    callback modem
b.    telephone recognition system    d.    signature analysis
22.    A firewall examines ____ of data.
a.    packets    c.    IDs
b.    bytes    d.    signatures
23.    A(n) ____ server is software that acts as an intermediary between two systems.
a.    packet-filtering    c.    proxy
b.    application-filtering    d.    intrusion detection
24.    Intrusion detection systems (IDSs) are usually placed ____ a firewall.
a.    in front of    c.    instead of
b.    behind    d.    on both sides of
25.    ____ protects cables from electromagnetic interference (EMI), which could corrupt data or data transmissions.
a.    Cable shielding    c.    ID packets
b.    Electronic trackers    d.    Corner bolt covers
26.    ____ are a type of access control.
a.    Steel encasements    c.    Firewalls
b.    Passwords    d.    IDS
27.    Typically, an organization leases the media used for a VPN on a(n) ____ basis.
a.    yearly    c.    as-needed
b.    10-year    d.    continuous
28.    Data encryption transforms data into a scrambled form called ____.
a.    plaintext    c.    message digest text
b.    cleartext    d.    ciphertext
29.    ____ ensures data security and integrity over public networks, such as the Internet.
a.    TLS    c.    ASE
b.    SSL    d.    SE
30.    In ____ encryption, the same key is used to encrypt and decrypt the message.
a.    symmetric    c.    nonrepudiation
b.    asymmetric    d.    TLS
31.    You encrypt a message with your private key and use an algorithm that hashes the message and creates a ____.
a.    private key    c.    plaintext message
b.    digital signature    d.    message digest
32.    Many organizations now follow the ____ model to form teams that can handle network intrusions and attacks quickly and effectively.
a.    CERT    c.    CIRC
b.    Sarbanes-Oxley    d.    The McCumber cube
33.    ____ main function is to provide information on security incidents, including information systems’ vulnerabilities, viruses, and malicious programs.
a.    CERT’s    c.    CIRC’s
b.    Sarbanes-Oxley    d.    The McCumber cube’s
34.    ____ planning outlines procedures for keeping an organization operational.
a.    Backup    c.    Disaster recovery
b.    Business continuity    d.    Security compliance
35.    A ____ plan lists the tasks that must be performed to restore damaged data and equipment.
a.    risk assessment    c.    disaster recovery
b.    business continuity    d.    security compliance
COMPLETION
1.    ____________________ means a system must not allow disclosing information to anyone who isn’t authorized to access it.
2.    ____________________ means that computers and networks are operating, and authorized users can access the information they need.
3.    ____________________ systems use a combination of hardware and software for improving reliability.
4.    ____________________ disks are usually a less expensive, Level 1 RAID system and can be a suitable solution for small organizations.
5.    A(n) ____________________ consists of self-propagating program code that’s triggered by a specified time or event.
6.    Unlike a virus, ____________________ are independent programs that can spread themselves without having to be attached to a host program.
7.    Logic ____________________ are triggered at a certain time (sometimes the birthday of a famous person) or by a specific event, such as a user pressing Enter or running a specific program.
8.    A(n) ____________________ threat is a security threat that combines the characteristics of computer viruses, worms, and other malicious codes with vulnerabilities found on public and private networks.
9.    Social ____________________ often search through dumpsters or trash cans looking for discarded material— such as phone lists and bank statements—that they can use to help break into a network.
10.    The ____________________ biometric security method translates words into digital patterns, which are recorded and examined for tone and pitch.
11.    A(n) ____________________ is a combination of hardware and software that acts as a filter or barrier between a private network and external computers or networks.
12.    The main types of firewalls are packet-filtering firewalls, application-filtering firewalls, and proxy ____________________.
13.    Terminal ____________________ security is a software feature that erases the screen and signs the user off automatically after a specified length of inactivity.
14.    With asymmetric encryption, a message encrypted with a public key can be decrypted only with the same algorithm used by the ____________________ key and requires the recipient’s private key, too.
15.    Section 404 of the ____________________ Act of 2002 requires IT professionals to document and test the effectiveness of security measures protecting information technology and systems, including general computer controls, application controls, and system software controls.
SHORT ANSWER
1.    What is the McCumber cube?
2.    What are mirror disks?
3.    List at least four types of intentional computer and network threats.
4.    What does a worm do during its attack?
.
5.    Describe how a blended threat works.
6.    What is shoulder surfing? Provide an example.
7.    Describe the vein analysis measure of biometric security.
8.    In what situations is a callback modem useful?
9.    What are the actions that a firewall might take?
10.    With a packet-filtering firewall, how is the sender notified of packet delivery?
11.    What is an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
12.    Describe the function of identification (ID) badges.
.
13.    What is a virtual private network (VPN)?
14.    What are some ways you can tell that SSL is enabled when using the Internet?
15.    What are the three critical factors for secure e-commerce?
ESSAY
1.    How are computer viruses transmitted? Where do the most dangerous one come from and what viruses pose the most risk to network security?
2.    Describe some of the steps that users should take to guard against data theft and data loss.
.
3.    Discuss guidelines for improving a firewall’s capabilities.
.
4.    What are some recommendations specific to laptop security?
5.    Describe asymmetric encryption.

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 100 Kilobytes

Information_system_6

TRUE/FALSE
1.    It is important to separate an organization’s core functions from the data communication systems that support them.
2.    With data communications technologies, Web and video conferencing are easier, which can reduce the costs of business travel.
3.    Data transmission channels are generally divided into two types: broadband and narrowband.
4.    Protocols help ensure compatibility between different manufacturers’ devices.
5.    All Internet connections require a modem.
6.    When phone lines are used for Internet connections, a digital modem is necessary to convert a computer’s digital signals to analog signals.
7.    With DSL connections, users can receive data up to 7.1 Mbps and send data at around 1 Mbps.
8.    Communication media connect sender and receiver devices.
9.    Cellular technology is a type of fiber optic media.
10.    Fiber-optic cables have a higher capacity, smaller size, lighter weight, lower attenuation, and higher security than other cable types.
11.    Radiated media use an antenna for transmitting data through air or water.
12.    Terrestrial microwave uses space-based transmitters and receivers and is often used for point-to-point links between buildings.
13.    In a point-to-point system, several devices share the same medium simultaneously.
14.    Centralized processing is the primary configuration used in data communications today.
15.    Databases and input/output devices can be distributed.
16.    In the OSI model, the session layer is responsible for formatting message packets.
17.    NICs are available from many vendors.
18.    LANs are used most often to isolate resources.
19.    Ethernet is a standard communication protocol embedded in software and hardware devices used for building a LAN.
20.    A WAN can only use one type of communication media in the network - coaxial cables.
21.    A LAN has a lower maximum data transfer speed than a MAN.
22.    Many cables are required for a star topology.
23.    The bus topology connects nodes along a network segment with the ends connected in a similar manner to the ring topology.
24.    The ring topology requires the least amount of cable of any topology.
25.    A mesh is a hardware and software device that controls the data transfer from a computer to a peripheral device and vice versa.
26.    IP is responsible for packet forwarding.
27.    Any packet-switching network can handle multimedia data.
28.    A bridge connects two LANs using the same protocol, and the communication medium must be the same on both LANs.
29.    A hub can choose the best possible path for packets based on distance and cost.
30.    In an n-tier architecture, network management is more challenging.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.    The amount of data that can be transferred from one point to another in one second is called ____.
a.    bandwidth    c.    modem
b.    attenuation    d.    protocol
2.    When multiple pieces of data are sent simultaneously, this is ____ communication.
a.    narrowband    c.    broadband
b.    wide area    d.    modular
3.    ____ is a broadband service offered over ordinary phone lines.
a.    Protocol    c.    DSL
b.    Conducted transmission    d.    Cable
4.    ____ can be conducted (wired or guided) or radiated (wireless).
a.    Communication networks    c.    Attenuation
b.    Communication media    d.    Protocols
5.    ____ cables are thick cables that can be used for both data and voice transmissions.
a.    Conductive    c.    Coaxial
b.    Broadcast    d.    Base
6.    ____ cables are glass tubes surrounded by concentric layers of glass, called “cladding,” to form a light path through wire cables.
a.    Twisted-pair    c.    Coaxial
b.    Copper line    d.    Fiber-optic
7.    ____ media operate on line-of-sight.
a.    Terrestrial microwave    c.    Coaxial
b.    Multipoint    d.    Fiber optic
8.    In ____ processing, each department has its own computer for performing processing tasks.
a.    centralized    c.    distributed
b.    decentralized    d.    modular
9.    The ____ layer of the OSI model serves as the window through which applications access network services.
a.    application    c.    session
b.    presentation    d.    transport
10.    The ____ layer of the OSI model generates the receiver’s address and ensures the integrity of messages by making sure packets are delivered without error, in sequence, and with no loss or duplication.
a.    application    c.    session
b.    presentation    d.    transport
11.    The ____ layer of the OSI model specifies the electrical connections between computers and the transmission medium, and defines the physical medium used for communication.
a.    application    c.    physical
b.    session    d.    data link
12.    Another name for a NIC is a(n) ____.
a.    modem    c.    network layer
b.    adapter card    d.    LAN
13.    LANs are used most often to ____.
a.    integrate services, such as e-mail and file sharing
b.    link computers that are geographically far apart
c.    provide Internet service to cellular phones including smartphones
d.    provide wireless networking services
14.    A network ____ represents a network’s physical layout.
a.    hierarchy    c.    protocol
b.    model    d.    topology
15.    A star topology is more effective at handling ____ network traffic.
a.    continuous and heavy    c.    heavy but short bursts of
b.    continuous and light    d.    repetitive and slow
16.    In a bus topology, ____ are used at each end of the cable to absorb the signal.
a.    emulators    c.    stoppers
b.    terminators    d.    nodes
17.    Gigabit Ethernet operates at ____.
a.    1 Gbps    c.    100 Gbps
b.    10 Gbps    d.    1000 Gbps
18.    A hierarchical topology is also called a ____ topology.
a.    layered    c.    tree
b.    mixed    d.    vertical
19.    Traditional mainframe networks use a ____ topology.
a.    ring    c.    mesh
b.    star    d.    hierarchical
20.    A ____ is a hardware device that allows several nodes to share one communication channel.
a.    multiplexor    c.    router
b.    controller    d.    front-end processor
21.    The ____ topology is costly and difficult to maintain.
a.    star    c.    ring
b.    mesh    d.    bus
22.    The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) operates at the OSI model’s ____ layer.
a.    data link    c.    transport
b.    physical    d.    network
23.    The process of deciding which path that data takes is called ____.
a.    convergence    c.    roaming
b.    divergence    d.    routing
24.    A routing table lists ____.
a.    nodes on a network
b.    the IP address of the router
c.    the protocols that each node understands
d.    the packets to be sent
25.    A ____ router can build tables that identify addresses on a network.
a.    pervasive    c.    dynamic
b.    passive    d.    static
26.    In a client/server model, a server is a ____ computer on the network that provides information or services in response to client requests.
a.    local    c.    dynamic
b.    remote    d.    static
27.    What is the first step in client/server communication?
a.    The results are formatted and displayed.
b.    The server receives the query.
c.    The client accepts a request.
d.    The user creates a query.
28.    ____ scaling refers to adding more workstations (clients).
a.    Static    c.    Vertical
b.    Dynamic    d.    Horizontal
29.    The most common n-tier architecture involves ____ tiers.
a.    two    c.    four
b.    three    d.    five
30.    A ____ network is a network operating on a radio frequency (RF), consisting of radio cells, each served by a fixed transmitter.
a.    dynamic    c.    WAN
b.    mobile    d.    horizontal
31.    ____ is using a cellular phone outside of a carrier’s limited service area.
a.    Wideband    c.    Roaming
b.    Teleprocessing    d.    Surfing
32.    ____ divides each channel into six time slots.
a.    Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)
b.    Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
c.    Mobile Telephone Switching Offices (MTSOs)
d.    Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
33.    Within the ____ technique for wireless security, a user’s computer and the AP use a master key to negotiate for a key that will be used for a session.
a.    WEP    c.    WPA
b.    EAP    d.    WPA2
34.    In data communication, ____ refers to integrating voice, video, and data so that multimedia information can be used for decision making.
a.    dynamic    c.    telepresence
b.    convergence    d.    teleprocessing
35.    One notably growing application of data communication and convergence is ____.
a.    centralization    c.    telepresence
b.    convergence    d.    teleprocessing
COMPLETION
1.    ____________________ is the loss of power in a signal as it travels from the sending device to the receiving device.
2.    ____________________ is a voice-grade transmission channel capable of transmitting a maximum of 56,000 bps, so only a limited amount of information can be transferred in a specific period of time.
3.    ____________________ is short for modulator-demodulator.
4.    ____________________ media include twisted pair cable, coaxial cable, and fiber optics.
5.    In a(n) ____________________ processing system, all processing is done at one central computer.
6.    The ____________________ model is a seven-layer architecture for defining how data is transmitted from computer to computer in a network, from the physical connection to the network to applications users run.
7.    A(n) ____________________ network connects workstations and peripheral devices that are in close proximity.
8.    A(n) ____________________ network is designed to handle data communication for multiple organizations in a city and sometimes nearby cities, too.
9.    In a star topology, the ____________________ computer supplies the main processing power.
10.    Companies that are geographically dispersed and organized hierarchically are good candidates for the ____________________ topology.
11.    A(n) ____________________ is a collection of binary digits, including message data and control characters for formatting and transmitting, sent from computer to computer over a network.
12.    In ____________________ routing, one node is in charge of selecting the path for all packets.
13.    Another name for ____________________ architecture is the client/server model.
14.    ____________________ is the amount of data transferred or processed in a specified time, usually one second.
15.    Both WLANs and WWANs rely on the RF ____________________ as the communication medium.
SHORT ANSWER
1.    Provide several examples of how data communication systems can improve the flexibility of data collection and transmission?
2.    List the three main components of a typical data communication system.
3.    What is an intelligent terminal?
.
4.    Briefly describe the type of connection technology a cable modem uses and its typical speed.
5.    What are coaxial cables? How are they used?
6.    What is the difference between a point-to-point and a multipoint system?
7.    What are some of the drawbacks of decentralized systems?
.
8.    Describe the responsibilities of the transport layer of the OSI model.
9.    What are the major types of networks?
10.    Define a wide area network and discuss typical transfer speeds.
11.    Describe a star topology.
12.    Contrast the star topology with the ring topology.
13.    Describe the mesh topology and its advantages.
14.    What are some of the disadvantages of centralized routing?
.
15.    What are some of the advantages of wireless and mobile networks?
ESSAY
1.    List and describe at least three different sender/receiver devices.
2.    What are the advantages of distributed processing?
3.    Describe the ring topology.
4.    What is a router?
5.    The wireless communication industry has many vendors and rapid changes, but wireless technologies generally fall into two groups. Name and describe these groups.

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 76 Kilobytes

Information_system_7

TRUE/FALSE
1.    The Internet is a network of networks.
2.    The National Science Foundation (NSF) initially restricted Internet use to commercial institutions.
3.    The World Wide Web (WWW) introduced a graphical interface to the Internet.
4.    An example of an IP address is 208.77.188.
5.    TLD servers translate all domain names into IP addresses.
6.    The .org domain name is used for backbone, regional, and commercial networks.
7.    The most recent version of HTML is HTML5.
8.    Asymmetric DSL has a lower transmission rate upstream than downstream.
9.    A T3 line is a digital communication link that supports transmission rates of about 143 to 145 Mbps.
10.    With some browsers, you can set up specialized toolbars for accessing frequently visited sites or conducting searches.
11.    A search directory is an information system that enables users to retrieve data from the Web by searching for information using search terms.
12.    Open Directory is an example of an automated directory.
13.    You can find chat rooms on a variety of topics, such as gardening, video games, and relationships.
14.    Using VoIP for international calls is more expensive than standard telephone service.

15.    All university Web sites are mandated by law to provide virtual campus tours so that prospective students can make accurate comparisons.
16.    Consumer acceptance of financial institutions’ Web sites has been rapid.

17.    Telepresence surgery allows surgeons to operate all over the world without physically traveling anywhere.
18.    Defining and limiting access carefully is important for security reasons, so intranets are typically set up behind a firewall.
19.    The Internet uses the TCP/IP protocol, but intranets use a different protocol for communication and security.
20.    An extranet offers an organization the same benefits as an intranet but includes other advantages.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.    The Internet started in ____.
a.    1950    c.    1987
b.    1969    d.    1994

2.    The embedded references in hypermedia documents are called ____.
a.    hyperareas    c.    text media
b.    hypertext    d.    URLs

3.    A(n) ____ denotes the type of organization or country the address specifies.
a.    TLD    c.    IP
b.    URL    d.    DNS

4.    In the URL, http://www.csub.edu/~hbidgoli/books.html, ____ represents the name of a directory in which files are stored.
a.    http    c.    ~hbidgoli
b.    www.csub.edu    d.    books.html

5.    An HTML ____ delineates a section of the page.
a.    code    c.    attribute
b.    directory    d.    tag
6.    Symmetric DSL usually has an upstream rate of ____ Mbps.
a.    1.5    c.    45
b.    24    d.    64

7.    Microsoft Internet Explorer (IE), Mozilla Firefox, Google Chrome, Apple Safari, and Opera are ____.
a.    directories    c.    navigational tools
b.    search engines    d.    types of Internet connections

8.    Search engines use software called “crawlers”, “spiders” or “____.”
a.    HTML    c.    Web browsers
b.    directories    d.    bots

9.    E-mail messages are sent using the ____ protocol.
a.    SMTP    c.    HTTP
b.    POP    d.    VoIP

10.    ____ is one of the most widely used services on the Internet.
a.    Podcasting    c.    E-mail
b.    Instant messaging    d.    VoIP
11.    ____ are usually formed for people to exchange opinions and ideas on a specific topic, usually of a technical or scholarly nature.
a.    IRC    c.    News groups
b.    E-mail groups    d.    Discussion groups

12.    InfoHub.com is a(n) ____ Web site.
a.    travel and tourism    c.    healthcare
b.    education    d.    real estate

13.    ____ is a common interorganizational system (IOS).
a.    RSS feed    c.    EDI
b.    Web 2.0    d.    I2

14.    An intranet server is placed ____ the DMZ.
a.    behind    c.    in front of
b.    on top of    d.    in
15.    The Federal Express Tracking System is an example of a(n) ____.
a.    intranet    c.    extranet
b.    Internet    d.    DMZ
16.    A(n) ____ is a type of Web site that allows users to add, delete, and sometimes modify content.
a.    social networking site    c.    blog
b.    RSS feed    d.    wiki

17.    A Twitter tweet can be no longer than ____ characters.
a.    80    c.    140
b.    120    d.    260

18.    A(n) RSS feed makes use of ____ to distribute Web content.
a.    XML    c.    Twitter
b.    HTML    d.    podcasting

19.    A podcast has a specific ____ and is defined with an XML item tag.
a.    address    c.    URL
b.    DNS    d.    transaction ID

20.    The Internet2 (I2) project started in 1987 and has been planned as a(n) ____ network.
a.    centralized    c.    static
b.    decentralized    d.    open-source
COMPLETION
1.    The Internet ____________________ is a foundation network linked with fiber-optic cables that can support very high bandwidth.
2.    Any computer that stores hypermedia documents and makes them available to other computers on the Internet is called a server or Web server, and computers requesting these documents are called ____________________.
3.    ____________________ names, such as IBM.com or whitehouse.gov, are unique identifiers of computer or network addresses on the Internet.
4.    A(n) ____________________ is the address of a document or site on the Internet.
5.    Directories are ____________________ of information based on keywords in documents and make it possible for search engines to find what you’re looking for.
6.    Originally, Internet users used ____________________ commands for simple tasks such as downloading files or sending e-mail.
7.    ____________________ organize information into categories.
8.    ____________________ enables users in chat rooms to exchange text messages with people in other locations in real time.
9.     ____________________ is a service for communicating with others via a private “chat room” on the Internet.
10.    Internet telephony uses the ____________________.
11.    An intranet is also called a corporate ____________________.
12.    ____________________ are considered a type of interorganizational system (IOS).
13.    A(n) ____________________ is a journal or newsletter that’s updated frequently and intended for the general public.
14.    A(n) ____________________ is an electronic audio file, such as an MP3 file, that’s posted on the Web for users to download to their mobile devices.
15.    ____________________ is a collaborative effort involving more than 200 U.S. universities and corporations to develop advanced Internet technologies and applications for higher education and academic research.
SHORT ANSWER
1.    Describe the use of hypermedia on the Web.
2.    What characters may be used for a domain name?
3.    What connection speeds are available for VDSL?
4.    What is a crawler-based directory?
.
5.    Besides cost savings, list three advantages of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP).
6.    What type of information do major publishers provide on their Web sites?
7.    List three banking services available on the Internet.
8.    What is an intranet?
9.    What is the main difference between a company’s Web site and its intranet?
10.    What is Web 2.0?
11.    How are corporate wikis used?
12.    Define social networking.
13.    What differentiates a podcast from a regular audio file?
14.    Describe a gigapop’s main function.
.
15.    Describe the Internet2 learningware application.
ESSAY
1.    Describe the Internet backbone. What are NAPs and how do they relate to the Internet backbone?
2.    Describe each component of the following URL:
http://www.csub.edu/~hbidgoli/books.html.
3.    How does the search process work?
4.    What type of services do real estate Web sites provide?
5.    What types of information can be provided on an intranet to improve an organization’s efficiency and effectiveness?

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 38 Kilobytes

Information_system_8

TRUE/FALSE
1.    E-business does not include transactions that support revenue generation by generating demand for goods and services.
2.    E-business builds on traditional commerce.
3.    Outbound logistics includes tasks associated with receiving, storing, and converting raw materials to finished goods.
4.    Marketing and sales are primary activities in the value chain.
5.    If good quality and lower costs are top priorities for customers, the company knows which parts of the value chain to focus on.
6.    The Internet’s low cost means companies of any size can take advantage of value-chain integration.
7.    Dell Computer generates a large portion of its revenue through the Web and eliminates the middleman in the process.
8.    The goal of e-commerce differs from the goal of traditional commerce.
9.    E-commerce provides product acknowledgements through phone calls and faxes.
10.    Companies that provide click-and-brick e-commerce still struggle to incorporate online interaction.
11.    Very small businesses usually cannot use the Internet and e-commerce applications to gain a competitive edge.
12.    Lack of acceptance is one of the disadvantages of e-commerce.
13.    eBay.com is an example of the brokerage model of e-commerce.
14.    Google provides an example of the merchant model of e-commerce through the AdWords program.
15.    Bizrate.com is an example of the informediary model of e-commerce.
16.    In the subscription model, an organization uses e-commerce sites to sell digital products and services.
17.    In the case of Staples, e-commerce has replaced traditional commerce.
18.    Companies use B2B e-commerce for purchase orders.
19.    Online classified Web sites such as Craigslist.org provide an example of consumer-to-business e-commerce.
20.    Universities are an example of nonbusiness organizations that use e-commerce applications.
21.    The fulfillment function of the B2C cycle is responsible for delivering products or services to customers.
22.    Service and support are even more important in traditional commerce than in e-commerce.
23.    Large corporations, such as General Electric or Boeing, or a consortium of several large companies, use the buyer-side marketplace model.
24.    The third-party exchange marketplace model is controlled by sellers and buyers.
25.    The buyer-side marketplace offers suppliers a direct channel of communication to buyers through online storefronts.
26.    The main advantage of XML over HTML is that you can assign data type definitions to information in a page.
27.    Smart cards have been used in Europe, Asia, and Australia for many years but are prohibited by law in the United States.
28.    The World Wide Web Consortium has canceled support for micropayments.
29.    Push technology complements pull technology.
30.    Optimizing a Web site involves editing a site’s content and HTML code to increase its relevance to specific keywords.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.    Another term that is use interchangeably with e-commerce is ____.
a.    e-business    c.    e-procurement
b.    brick-and-click    d.    e-government
2.    ____ introduced the value chain concept.
a.    Tim Berners-Lee    c.    Bill Gates
b.    Michael Porter    d.    Tom Watson
3.    The idea of the value chain was developed in ____.
a.    1975    c.    1985
b.    1980    d.    1990
4.    ____ is/are a supporting activity in the value chain.
a.    Operations    c.    Technological development
b.    Logistics    d.    Service
5.    ____ is/are a primary activity in the value chain.
a.    Procurement    c.    Operations
b.    Human resource management    d.    Organizational infrastructure
6.    E-commerce fulfills the product information activity using ____.
a.    Web sites    c.    e-mail
b.    phone calls    d.    faxes
7.    “____” means all market participants can trade at the same price.
a.    Return on investment    c.    Customer service
b.    Price transparency    d.    Accessibility
8.    The Internet has improved productivity in many organizations, but this improvement must be converted to ____.
a.    profitability    c.    value
b.    cash flow    d.    exposure
9.    Using the ____ model transfers the old retail model to the e-commerce world by using the medium of the Internet.
a.    merchant    c.    advertising
b.    brokerage    d.    mixed
10.    Using the ____ model brings sellers and buyers together on the Web and collects commissions on transactions between these parties.
a.    merchant    c.    advertising
b.    brokerage    d.    mixed
11.    E-commerce sites that use the ____ model collect information on consumers and businesses and then sell this information to other companies for marketing purposes.
a.    business-to-consumer    c.    subscription
b.    click-and-brick    d.    informediary
12.    ____ use the subscription model.
a.    Dell    c.    Amazon.com
b.    Consumer Reports    d.    eBay
13.    There are ____ major e-commerce categories.
a.    six    c.    twelve
b.    nine    d.    fifteen
14.    ____ is a pure-play company.
a.    Amazon.com    c.    Walmart.com
b.    BarnesandNoble.com    d.    Gap.com
15.    ____ is a major player in B2B e-commerce.
a.    Amazon    c.    Gap
b.    Walmart    d.    eBay
16.    ____ is a site that facilitates C2C e-commerce.
a.    Amazon    c.    Gap
b.    Walmart    d.    eBay
17.    ____ e-commerce involves people selling products or services to business.
a.    C2C    c.    C2B
b.    C2B    d.    G2C
18.    Crisis response is an example of a ____ e-government application.
a.    G2C    c.    G2G
b.    G2B    d.    G2E
19.    E-training for government employees is an example of a ____ application.
a.    G2C    c.    G2G
b.    G2B    d.    G2E
20.    E-procurement is an example of the ____ B2B e-commerce model.
a.    seller-side marketplace    c.    third-party exchange marketplace
b.    buyer-side marketplace    d.    trading partner agreement
21.    The main objective of ____ is to prevent purchases from suppliers that are not on the approved list of sellers and to eliminate the processing costs of purchases.
a.    e-marketing    c.    third-party exchange marketplaces
b.    e-procurement    d.    e-business
22.    A ____ generates revenue from the fees charged for matching buyers and sellers.
a.    seller-side marketplace    c.    third-party exchange marketplace
b.    buyer-side marketplace    d.    trading partner agreement
23.    A ____ market concentrates on a specific function or business and automates this function or process for different industries.
a.    vertical    c.    two-dimensional
b.    horizontal    d.    targeted
24.    Mobile commerce (m-commerce) is based on the ____ protocol.
a.    EAP    c.    WAP
b.    WEP    d.    WAP2
25.    ____ payment refers to money or script that is exchanged only electronically.
a.    Electronic    c.    Internet
b.    Digital    d.    Automated
26.    ____ usually works with a smart card.
a.    E-cash    c.    E-checks
b.    E-wallets    d.    Micropayments
27.    ____ is an electronic version of a paper check.
a.    E-cash    c.    E-check
b.    E-wallet    d.    E-paper
28.    An ____ is available for most handheld devices.
a.    e-cash    c.    e-check
b.    e-wallet    d.    e-paper
29.    ____ is a popular on-line payment system used in many on-line auction sites.
a.    E-cash    c.    PayPal
b.    E-wallet    d.    Smart card
30.    Which term describes one user viewing one ad?
a.    click    c.    ad impression
b.    banner ad    d.    ad view
31.    Which term refers to the rate computed by dividing the number of clicks an ad gets by the total impressions bought?
a.    cost per click rate(CPC)    c.    click-through rate (CTR)
b.    cost per thousand (CPM)    d.    cost per impression rate (CPI)
32.    ____ are an application of artificial intelligence that can be used for Web marketing.
a.    Intelligent agents    c.    Micropayments
b.    Teleprocessing    d.    Smartcards
33.    With ____ technology, information is sent to users based on their previous inquiries, interests, or specifications.
a.    pull    c.    agent
b.    push    d.    smartcard
34.    ____ is a method for improving the volume or quality of traffic to a Web site.
a.    XML    c.    Ad impression technology
b.    SEO    d.    Agent technology
35.    ____ aim(s) at increasing a Web site’s performance on search engines in a natural (and free) fashion.
a.    Micropayments    c.    SEO
b.    Meta tagging    d.    XML
COMPLETION
1.    ____________________ encompasses all activities a company performs for selling and buying products and services, using computers and communication technologies.
2.    ____________________ is buying and selling goods and services over the Internet
3.    The ____________________ chain consists of a series of activities designed to meet business needs by adding value (or cost) in each phase of the process.
4.    ____________________ e-commerce mixes traditional commerce and e-commerce.
5.    The ____________________ model of e-commerce is an extension of traditional advertising media, such as radio and television.
6.    ISPs such as AOL generate revenue from advertising and from subscription fees for Internet access; this is the ____________________ e-commerce model.
7.    Amazon.com is an example of the ____________________ category of e-commerce.
8.    Electronic data interchange (EDI) and electronic funds transfer (EFT) are forms of ____________________ e-commerce that have been around for many years.
9.    Tax filing and payments, completing, submitting, and downloading forms, requests for records, and online voter registration are all examples of ____________________ e-government.
10.    E-commerce activities that take place inside an organization are called ____________________ e-commerce.
11.    The ____________________ marketplace model is the most popular B2B model.
12.    A(n) ____________________ market concentrates on a specific industry or market.
13.    ____________________ Extensible Markup Language is a worldwide project for standardizing the exchange of e-commerce data via XML.
14.    ____________________-based e-commerce will rely on voice recognition and text-to-speech technologies.
15.    Web ____________________ uses the Web and its supporting technologies to promote goods and services.
SHORT ANSWER
1.    How does e-commerce relate to the value chain concept?
2.    Provide examples of how e-commerce can enhance a value chain.
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3.    Explain what click-and-brick e-commerce means.
4.    List the disadvantages of e-commerce.
5.    Describe the merchant model of e-commerce.
6.    How do companies use B2B applications?
7.    Provide examples of organizational e-commerce activities.
8.    How does B2B e-commerce lower production costs and improve accuracy?
9.    What is the main objectives of trading partner agreements?
10.    What are micropayments?
11.    What is CPM in terms of Web marketing?
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12.    Describe spot leasing.
13.    In terms of Web marketing, what is a hit?
14.    How do companies participate in SEO?
15.    What are the best ways to optimize a Web site?
ESSAY
1.    Describe business-to-consumer e-commerce. Provide examples of companies that are involved in this type of e-commerce and explain the difference between “pure play” companies and “brick and mortar” companies with an online sales presence.
2.    Describe the information sharing activity of e-commerce.
3.    What are the advantages of B2B e-commerce?
4.    What can sellers do by participating in buyer-side marketplaces?
5.    Describe the m-commerce applications that are currently available.

Created Date Thursday, 02 January 2014
Filesize 77 Kilobytes

Information_system_9

TRUE/FALSE
1.    Airline reservation systems are considered the first large-scale interactive global system.
2.    Globalization is an important factor in communications but not in purchasing or supply chain.
3.    As of June 30, 2010, North America has the highest number of Internet users of any region.
4.    With a GIS in place, an international company can increase its control over and enhance its coordination of its subsidiaries and be able to access new global markets.
5.    A GIS can be defined in terms of three dimensions: control, coordination, and communication.
6.    High coordination in a GIS offers the ability to maintain control of market needs around the world.
7.    All GISs are made up of only two components: a global database and a global network.
8.    An information system manager faces design and implementation issues when developing a global network.
9.    If the company’s international communication requirements mean only simple file sharing is needed and response time isn’t a critical factor, full-duplex transmission is required.
10.    The major requirement of a network is making communication and information sharing possible.
11.    All GIS functional requirements differ from domestic information system’s requirements.
12.    Consolidated global reporting is a crucial tool for managing overseas subsidiaries.
13.    When considering whether to add a GIS, managers need not consider migration since this process will happen naturally when the GIS comes online.
14.    The complexity and financial investment required for a GIS might not be feasible from an economic standpoint.
15.    In a multinational structure, production, sales, marketing, and financial management are all decentralized.
16.    Local hardware and software vendors influence choices in applications.
17.    McDonald’s is an example of an organization with a global structure.
18.    In an international structure, information systems personnel are regularly exchanged among locations to encourage joint development of applications for marketing, finance, production, and so forth.
19.    Foreign exchange systems that allow traders and brokers from around the world to interact are an example of information systems that support an international structure.
20.    Sharing software for all operations is the best and most efficient form of standardization.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.    In 2008, the Coca-Cola Company generated more than ____% of its revenue from outside the United States.
a.    30    c.    80
b.    60    d.    95
2.    The region of ____ experienced the highest Internet growth between 2000 and 2010.
a.    Africa    c.    the Middle East
b.    Asia    d.    Latin America
3.    As of June 30, 2010, the region of ____ had the lowest number of Internet users.
a.    Africa    c.    Europe
b.    Oceania/Australia    d.    Latin America
4.    ____ is the process of managing the interaction between activities in different, specialized parts of an organization.
a.    Coordination    c.    Regionalization
b.    Control    d.    Globalization
5.    The GIS control dimension requires a(n) ____ architecture for data.
a.    open    c.    decentralized
b.    global    d.    centralized
6.    The GIS coordination dimension requires a(n) ____ architecture for data.
a.    open    c.    decentralized
b.    global    d.    centralized
7.    ____ present(s) a challenge when designing and implementing global databases.
a.    Local regulations    c.    Intellectual property laws
b.    Different character sets    d.    Telecommunications infrastructure
8.    ____ includes national laws and international agreements on privacy protection and data security.
a.    MNC    c.    GIS
b.    FTP    d.    TDF
9.    ____ is an operational requirement for a GIS.
a.    Management of global tax risk    c.    Management of conflicts
b.    Global data access    d.    Strategic planning support
10.    ____ is an strategic requirement for a GIS.
a.    Management of global tax risk
b.    Global data access
c.    Communication between headquarters and subsidiaries
d.    Consolidated global reporting
11.    Regardless of its name, a GIS must enable ____ across borders.
a.    political stability    c.    resource sharing
b.    transparency    d.    easy access
12.    Tyco Corporation is an example of the ____ type of global organization.
a.    multinational    c.    international
b.    global    d.    transnational
13.    One of the issues with the ____ structure is that there is a heavy reliance on headquarters for new products and ideas.
a.    multinational    c.    international
b.    global    d.    transnational
14.    The level of cooperation and worldwide coordination needed for a(n) ____ structure doesn’t fully exist in today’s global environment.
a.    multinational    c.    international
b.    global    d.    transnational
15.    ____ was a top offshoring country in 2008.
a.    Argentina    c.    South Korea
b.    Venezuela    d.    Egypt
16.    One of the issues with GIS is that too much ____ can prevent flexibility in responding to local preferences and even time differences.
a.    regulation    c.    standardization
b.    control    d.    coordination
17.    Cultural differences are best addressed with ____.
a.    laws and regulations    c.    standardization
b.    coordination and controls    d.    education and training
18.    Software piracy has resulted in an estimated ____ worldwide.
a.    $20 million    c.    $20 billion
b.    $40 million    d.    $40 billion
19.    People in countries such as ____, where high-speed access is common, expect sophisticated Web sites with many graphics features.
a.    Egypt    c.    France
b.    South Korea    d.    Ghana
20.    When assembling an international “dream team,” ____ are recognized for their project management skills.
a.    Singaporean    c.    Germans
b.    Koreans    d.    Japanese
COMPLETION
1.    ____________________ products, which are products or services that have been standardized for all markets, are becoming increasingly important in international marketing efforts.
2.    The ____________________ is what makes e-business possible.
3.    A(n) ____________________ is an information system for managing global operations, supporting an international company’s decision-making processes, and dealing with complex variables in global operations and decision making.
4.    Strategic planning is a(n) ____________________ function of a GIS.
5.    The trade-off between the amount of control and coordination needed define the organization’s globalization ____________________.
6.    Value-added networks are private multipoint networks managed by a third party and used by organizations on a(n) ____________________ basis.
7.    ____________________ data flow restricts what type of data can be captured and transmitted in foreign countries.
8.    A(n) ____________________ corporation or enterprise refers to a corporation that has asset and operations in at least one country other than its home country.
9.    ____________________ risks include the problems caused by an unstable government.
10.    An organization following a(n) ____________________ structure (or headquarters-driven structure), sometimes called a “franchiser,” manages highly centralized information systems.
11.    An organization with a(n) ____________________ structure operates much like a multinational corporation, but subsidiaries depend on headquarters more for process and production decisions.
12.    In an organization with a(n) ____________________ structure, the parent and all subsidiaries work together in designing policies, procedures, and logistics for delivering products and services to the right market.
13.    With a(n) ____________________ outsourcing approach, an organization chooses an outsourcing firm in another country that can provide needed services and products.
14.    Initially offshore outsourcing was used mostly in ____________________.
15.    ____________________ differences include differences in values, attitudes, and behaviors from country to country.
SHORT ANSWER
1.    What effect does globalization have on the supply chain?
2.    How does e-business build on the advantages and structures of traditional business?
3.    How has the Internet and e-business affected small companies?
4.    List the three basic components of a global information system (GIS).
5.    What factors should an information system manager consider when determining the best communication media to meet global performance and traffic needs?
6.    Why must an information system manager choose the best transmission technology for the global network’s needs? What are the current transmission technologies?
7.    Information system managers must consider the company’s objectives when determining the network architecture. Discuss some of these considerations.
8.    What factors are included in an global GIS environment?
9.    Describe strategic planning support.
10.    How are GISs categorized?
11.    Besides manufacturing, list three other information technology tasks that use offshore outsourcing.
12.    How does a GIS plays an important role in supporting offshore outsourcing?
13.    List the five factors that can hinder the success of a GIS.
14.    Diverse regulatory practices may impede the integration process. What are some of the considerations when dealing with these practices?
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15.    Describe one possible solution for narrowing the skills gap in developing countries.
ESSAY
1.    What are the advantages of high coordination?
2.    What type of choices must an information systems manager make when developing a global network?
3.    What are the requirements for management of short term foreign exchange risks when implementing a GIS?
) tracks financial data, such as bonds, equity, interest rates, and currency conversions.
4.    What issues must be addressed before adding a GIS to an existing organization?
5.    Describe the transnational structure for a global organization.